Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

11

Implicit in the question is the assumption that we are trying to produce an English translation that best captures the nuance of the original Greek without importing any doctrine. In other words, we want a "literal" translation that's useful for interpretation. There are two translation issues here and we can easily separate them and look at them ...


11

We must remember that two people with the same education and knowledge of original Biblical languages, will, and commonly do, conclude opposite conclusions while maintaining proclaimed objectivity in their exegesis. This is exactly what Protestant and Catholic scholars do concerning this verse. The reality is that everyone makes their exegetical conclusion ...


9

Not an expert, but I did have this link sent to me once: Abba Isn't Daddy Each of the three occurrences of αββα in the NT is followed by the Greek translation ο πατερ, "the father." This translation makes clear its meaning to the writers; the form is a literal translation -- "father" plus a definite article -- and like abba can also be a ...


9

It would be difficult to give a 100% definitive answer unless there is some commentary by the translation committee on this (which I have not found, but may exist). The following is offered as reasonable conclusions from other evidence. Variation It is deemed by some that good writing avoids an abundance of repetition in word usage. For example, this page ...


8

God If we read the entire sentence, we see that "him who subjected it" subjected it to futility. "Subjected" here is the Greek word hypotassō, which means to "arrange" or "set in order" (reference). "Futility" here is mataios which means "devoid of force", "useless", "vain" (reference) So, "him who subjected it" is the one who [set it in order] of ...


8

The word miseo appears 173 times between the New Testament and Septuagint. It comes from the root misos meaning "hatred." Miseo means "hate, detest, abhor." It appears 35 times in the apocryphal books. In the Septuagint and a Hebrew translation of the New Testament I have, it is usually used for sone. If I had a copy of Hatch and Redpath's Concordance ...


8

It is common for verbs to be implied in the Greek but not actually appear in the text. Often the context will make little sense without it or will make it clear which verb is to be used, as is the case here. This is standard in many languages even today (especially with the verb "to be"), but not in English. Let me begin with an example in English: I ...


8

Of the Possibility of the Middle Voice As you note, Wallace argues against κατηρτισμένα (katērtismena) being a "direct middle," being translated as "having prepared themselves." Let's examine the validity of his arguments first:1 ONE. "The direct middle is quite rare" (418) — which to some extent is an assertion both begging to be proved and ...


8

Short Answer: Yes, they would know what he meant The longer answer is that the letter to the church in Rome (1:7) was to a mixed group of Gentiles (1:13) and Jews (2:17). Most believe the church started from some of the Jews present at Peter's preaching during Pentecost, the "visitors from Rome" (Act 2:10; NKJV/ESV/NASB). Starting at 2:17, Paul begins more ...


7

General Context The answer to this depends on understanding the flow of argument of Romans. Too often I think we approach Romans with a hermeneutic governed by the section breaks, but the flow is extremely important. Paul is talking about sin in his present state. In chapter 6, he has discussed the death of sin (e.g. verse 1); in early 7, he has used the ...


7

The words "in hope" strongly suggest that it was God who subjected the world to futility. Adam seems to lack not only the power to subject the world in such manner, but also he had no plan of hope. Satan, though perhaps powerful enough, is also an unlikely candidate to have subjected the world to futility in hope, especially in the hope of setting it free. ...


7

I presume that this in reference to its use in the New Testament. In the Old Testament, it means "father". It's pretty much the only translation for it. Use in Greek text From Vines Abba is an Aramaic word, found in Mar 14:36; Rom 8:15 and Gal 4:6. In the Gemara (a Rabbinical commentary on the Mishna, the traditional teaching of the Jews) it is ...


7

"Justified" has the same meaning in each verse. You have to look at those verses in the larger context to understand what the authors are referring to by "works" and how that relates to justification. James 2:14-26 makes the point that true faith always leads to works. The clearest statements are in verses 17 and 26: 17 Even so faith, if it has no ...


7

OLD TESTAMENT USAGE: The word "poiema" us used only twice in the New Testament, as you say. But in the Greek translation of the Old Testament, the same word is used several times: 1Sam. 8:8 According to all the works which they have done since the day that I brought them up out of Egypt, even to this day—with which they have forsaken Me and served other ...


7

What Promise is this? There is none in these words. So write Sanday and Headlam (A critical and exegetical commentary on the Epistle to the Romans, 5th edn (ICC; T & T Clark, 1902), p. 111). They don't go on to explain much, and here James Denney (notable Scottish theologian) does a better job in the Expositor's Greek Testament (Hodder & ...


6

It should be noted that several terms in the NT have broader and narrower meanings, such as diakonos, which can refer to Christ Himself (Rom 15:8), to an ordained role ("deacon"; see Phi 1:1; 1 Tim 3:8–12) or more generally to any servant of the church, even a "minister" (e.g. in Col 1:25, Paul refers to himself as a diakonos; cf also 1 Tim 4:6: Timothy was ...


6

"Propitiation" is the preferred choice of the two since it addresses both the context and the theology of the act. The meaning of propitiation is actually more forceful than how it is normally translated, as "appeasing." Instead, it's more in line with specifically being the object of the direct wrath of the deity in question (in the Greek mind) for ...


6

The bridge that connects Jesus the Nazarene as "Yahweh" is Isaiah 8:13-14, which both Paul (in Romans 9:33) and Peter (in 1 Peter 2:6-8) use to make the nexus between "calling on Jesus" and "calling on Yahweh" to be saved. First, in Psalm 118:22 we find an unqualified mention of a stone "which the builders rejected" that in turn "became the chief ...


6

Not ambiguous, but inclusive in meaning Ambiguity implies two or more possible meanings that are unclear as to which it is, or more broadly simply being unclear. I do not believe that is the situation here at all. Examining the statements Let's start with the basically undisputed OT reference Paul is using in Romans. Habakkuk 2:4 The (very literal) ...


6

The explanation is not contradictory. First we see how Paul expands the meaning of Habakkuk 2:4 in the relevant verse here in Romans - Romans 1:17 (GNT) δικαιοσύνη γὰρ θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ ἀποκαλύπτεται ἐκ πίστεως εἰς πίστιν, καθὼς γέγραπται, Ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεως ζήσεται. The key in this verse is that we live "from faith to faith" (ἐκ πίστεως εἰς ...


5

I would suggest that propitiation, expiation and mercy seat are all viable options. My reasoning is based on theological and linguistic insights. I subscribe to the linguistic theory of signs and signification. Words are considered signs and their meaning is derived (signified) by the real word entities they point to. When we communicate using the word ...


5

No, περἰ does not normally have the meaning as an offering for. Purely on the basis of the Greek present, it is hard to translate περἰ in that way. The standard translations of περἰ + genitive are as follows: around, about, or near a place about, concerning about, on account of for (as in, to fight for one's life) of motive (as in, for the sake of ...


5

Background This verse is the beginning of Paul's call to a holy life (imperative) on the basis of the rich Gospel he has presented (the indicative: justification, regeneration, sanctification...). And Paul, as is typical of the organization and care of his thought and especially of Romans, gives this verse and a summary or thesis statement of everything ...


5

Paul structured Romans a bit like a Socratic dialogue with himself taking the role of the main character and a hypothetical reader being assigned the role of foil or student. Paul anticipates and articulates the reader's objections to his arguments so that he can address them. It would likely have been a well-known genre to a Roman audience since Cicero ...


5

Two doctrines are being expressed in this passage: The doctrine of federal headship The doctrine of individual culpability Federal Headship Adam was our representative; as such, his actions implicate all of us. This is incredibly important to maintain; he who denies this denies the possibility of Christ's work being applied to others (because of the ...


5

Technically, ηὐχόμην is deponent which is a middle conjugation that is translated as active. The imperfect tense is an incomplete action. It's up to the translator to interpret whether it is iterative (periodic), inceptive (the beginning of the action), durative (a constant, ongoing action), etc. Translation of the imperfect is usually accompanied by the ...


5

The phrase 'poor of the Saints' (πτωχους των αγιων) is just what it means from the most reliable sources I have looked up. Kittel notes that this 'collection for the poor' without indicating there was any debate about its meaning in the original Greek: The accent is to be placed on the fact, not that they are poor saints at Jerusalem, but that they are ...


5

The ESV is clearly the more faithful to the way the Greek is structured as a result of their "essentially literal" philosophy. So each item that is owed is owed individually. I may owe taxes to the various levels of government, revenue to the people who work for me, respect to the people I work for, and honor to those people who deserve honor. Those ...


5

The Greek text for Romans 4:25 (from the NA28, emphasis mine) reads: ὃς παρεδόθη διὰ τὰ παραπτώματα ἡμῶν καὶ ἠγέρθη διὰ τὴν δικαίωσιν ἡμῶν. The preposition διὰ followed by an accusative generally has a gloss of "on account of" or "because of," but could also carry the connotation "for the sake of." It almost always carries the force of the NASB ...


4

The mere fact that Paul adjoined these two statements gives one reason to think that this apparent contradiction is both intentional and non-contradictory. How does one reconcile these two statements? The straightforward reading of the text makes sense if the "now" in "has been disclosed" is applied to both clauses. I.e., read it as if it were ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible