Hot answers tagged romans
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God
If we read the entire sentence, we see that "him who subjected it" subjected it to futility.
"Subjected" here is the Greek word hypotassō, which means to "arrange" or "set in order" (reference).
"Futility" here is mataios which means "devoid of force", "useless", "vain" (reference)
So, "him who subjected it" is the one who [set it in order] of ...
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The words "in hope" strongly suggest that it was God who subjected the world to futility. Adam seems to lack not only the power to subject the world in such manner, but also he had no plan of hope. Satan, though perhaps powerful enough, is also an unlikely candidate to have subjected the world to futility in hope, especially in the hope of setting it free. ...
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"Justified" has the same meaning in each verse. You have to look at those verses in the larger context to understand what the authors are referring to by "works" and how that relates to justification.
James 2:14-26 makes the point that true faith always leads to works. The clearest statements are in verses 17 and 26:
17 Even so faith, if it has no ...
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The word miseo appears 173 times between the New Testament and Septuagint. It comes from the root misos meaning "hatred." Miseo means "hate, detest, abhor." It appears 35 times in the apocryphal books.
In the Septuagint and a Hebrew translation of the New Testament I have, it is usually used for sone. If I had a copy of Hatch and Redpath's Concordance ...
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General Context
The answer to this depends on understanding the flow of argument of Romans. Too often I think we approach Romans with a hermeneutic governed by the section breaks, but the flow is extremely important.
Paul is talking about sin in his present state. In chapter 6, he has discussed the death of sin (e.g. verse 1); in early 7, he has used the ...
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The bridge that connects Jesus the Nazarene as "Yahweh" is Isaiah 8:13-14, which both Paul (in Romans 9:33) and Peter (in 1 Peter 2:6-8) use to make the nexus between "calling on Jesus" and "calling on Yahweh" to be saved.
First, in Psalm 118:22 we find an unqualified mention of a stone "which the builders rejected" that in turn "became the chief ...
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Paul structured Romans a bit like a Socratic dialogue with himself taking the role of the main character and a hypothetical reader being assigned the role of foil or student. Paul anticipates and articulates the reader's objections to his arguments so that he can address them. It would likely have been a well-known genre to a Roman audience since Cicero ...
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No, περἰ does not normally have the meaning as an offering for. Purely on the basis of the Greek present, it is hard to translate περἰ in that way.
The standard translations of περἰ + genitive are as follows:
around, about, or near a place
about, concerning
about, on account of
for (as in, to fight for one's life)
of motive (as in, for the sake of ...
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Implicit in the question is the assumption that we are trying to produce an English translation that best captures the nuance of the original Greek without importing any doctrine. In other words, we want a "literal" translation that's useful for interpretation. There are two translation issues here and we can easily separate them and look at them ...
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I would suggest that propitiation, expiation and mercy seat are all viable options. My reasoning is based on theological and linguistic insights.
I subscribe to the linguistic theory of signs and signification. Words are considered signs and their meaning is derived (signified) by the real word entities they point to. When we communicate using the word ...
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"Propitiation" is the preferred choice of the two since it addresses both the context and the theology of the act. The meaning of propitiation is actually more forceful than how it is normally translated, as "appeasing." Instead, it's more in line with specifically being the object of the direct wrath of the deity in question (in the Greek mind) for ...
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I don't have a problem with a change like this. The concept behind "brother" in these contexts is "fellow member of the covenant community." Originally, it applied to Jews only. Then very early Christians began referring to themselves as "brethren" both amongst themselves and to Jews. Acts 1:16 is a great example of that, but there are others in Acts ...
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Two doctrines are being expressed in this passage:
The doctrine of federal headship
The doctrine of individual culpability
Federal Headship
Adam was our representative; as such, his actions implicate all of us. This is incredibly important to maintain; he who denies this denies the possibility of Christ's work being applied to others (because of the ...
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Technically, ηὐχόμην is deponent which is a middle conjugation that is translated as active. The imperfect tense is an incomplete action. It's up to the translator to interpret whether it is iterative (periodic), inceptive (the beginning of the action), durative (a constant, ongoing action), etc. Translation of the imperfect is usually accompanied by the ...
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I think Paul is talking about the future resurrection, but with a very real sense of that future resurrection being something inevitable - giving us certainty, purpose, and hope in the present time.
A few verses later we read about having been adopted as sons:
15 For you did not receive the spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you have received ...
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My own conclusion is that referring to Paul's "present, converted state, or ... past, unconverted state" sidesteps Paul's actual argument, because it takes no account of the fact that Paul is not speaking of the 'unconverted' in general, but of Jews (ie those who know the law) in particular.
There are two equally correct conclusions:
Paul is speaking of ...
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Background
This verse is the beginning of Paul's call to a holy life (imperative) on the basis of the rich Gospel he has presented (the indicative: justification, regeneration, sanctification...). And Paul, as is typical of the organization and care of his thought and especially of Romans, gives this verse and a summary or thesis statement of everything ...
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Let's pull in a little context:
For “everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.” How then will they call on him in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in him of whom they have never heard? And how are they to hear without someone preaching? And how are they to preach unless they are sent? As it is written, “How ...
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The mere fact that Paul adjoined these two statements gives one reason to think that this apparent contradiction is both intentional and non-contradictory. How does one reconcile these two statements?
The straightforward reading of the text makes sense if the "now" in "has been disclosed" is applied to both clauses. I.e., read it as if it were
...
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As an imperfect it has a sense of continuation "I wished and continued to wish". Middle is usually translated as active, so Paul is doing the wishing. Indicative indicates it is an actual fact.
"I, Paul, really did wish and continued to wish..."
So is a conditional simple "I could wish" an equivalent? I could wish for a better one. It kind of loses the ...
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This is a bookend to the the beginning of Romans:
Paul, a servant of Christ Jesus, called to be an apostle, set apart for the gospel of God, which he promised beforehand through his prophets in the holy Scriptures, concerning his Son, who was descended from David according to the flesh and was declared to be the Son of God in power according to the ...
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The Greek used for "we are more than conquerors" here is a single word, ὑπερνικῶμεν (hypernicōmen), an inflected form of ὑπερνικάω (hypernicaō). Liddell and Scott gloss it as "prevail completely over"; the verb is composed of the basic verb νικάω (nicaō, "conquer") with the prefix ὑπέρ- (hyper-, "over, beyond") added to it.
The idea appears to be that ...
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First impressions
I've just borrowed the book from a nearby library and will examine it over the next few weeks. The first thing I notice is that it weighs in at 547 pages including front and back matter. (I have the 1968 Oxford University press edition of Edwyn C. Hoskyns' 1933 translation.) Since the entire letter of Romans accounts for about a dozen ...
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It is the tendency in Greek grammar (and I believe is also common in European languages, before the wide use of what we've come to call politically-correct language) that whenever mixed-gender groups are referred to, the masculine is used. (Smyth, §197a, §1055)
So in Romans 1:13, if Paul had wanted to say either "brothers" or "siblings" he would have said ...
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As I was writing this question, a possible interpretation occurred to me. When Paul says that "many died through one man's trespass", he most likely means that Adam's trespass indirectly caused our death.
In other words, Adam's sin led to our sin, and our sin leads to our death. This is consistent with Romans 5:12:
Romans 5:12 (ESV)
12 ...
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This answer is based on Karl Barth's commentary. This particular section may be found on Google Books, if you are interested.
Barth makes a distinction between the historical Adam and Adam as a type of all humanity. According to his theology, the Triune God decided before creation to elect some and reject others. So that Adam would reject God and that ...
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The phrase 'poor of the Saints' (πτωχους των αγιων) is just what it means from the most reliable sources I have looked up.
Kittel notes that this 'collection for the poor' without indicating there was any debate about its meaning in the original Greek:
The accent is to be placed on the fact, not that they are poor saints at Jerusalem, but that they are ...
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It may be plausible that Andronicus and Junias were in Rome, where they were imprisoned. That is, Paul was not collocated in Rome with them (when he wrote the letter) but simply added that they be greeted on his behalf by those who were in Rome (to whom he wrote the letter according to Rom 1:7).
At the beginning of Romans chapter 16 he indicates that ...
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The Greek preposition phrase is εἰς ἡμᾶς (eis hēmas). The preposition εἰς preceding an accusative noun is frequently translated as "in" or "to," so both are grammatically possible.
Here's a list of all the verses in which this prepositional phrase occurs. The majority of them are Pauline epistles.
Acts 3:4 "look at us" (or "toward us")
Romans 5:8 "showed ...
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Your question seems to be rhetorical. Most likely, of course, Jesus knew the prophecy of Joel. Did he quote it? Very likely, even if we can not pin it down. Not all is written down. The book Revelation quotes it often. (It is said to be inspired by him. Apk 1, 1)
There is a difference between the two situations in which persons would call on the Name of ...
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