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Mark Edward did a fantastic job of covering the Biblical link between the serpent and Satan, so I will not re-hash that, but I would like to directly address the second part of the OPs question: was John the first to link these two figures together? Or had the two already been connected in Jewish thought at the time? If not, is there any way to explain ...


EXPOSITION: BDAG supplies this usage (emphasis mine): ⓑ of revelations of a particular kind, through visions, etc.: w. gen. of the author ἀ. Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ Gal 1:12; Rv 1:1 (w. ὀπτασία) ἀ. κυρίου 2 Cor 12:1. κατὰ ἀποκάλυψιν because of a rev. Gal 2:2; MPol 22:3, Epil Mosq 5. κατὰ ἀ. ἐγνωρίσθη μοι τὸ μυστήριον the secret was made known to me by ...


Chapter one verse 1 of Revelation sums it up pretty well I think. The revelation is OF JESUS CHRIST, as given by God the father (see john 12:49) unto him (Jesus) to show us things which must shortly come to pass. So to me, this was a third heaven angel giving John a revelation, or revealing who Jesus is. Chapter 22:16 says this.


The translation of Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ is certainly "the revelation of Jesus Christ." The real question is whether the genitive phrase should be understood as a subjective genitive or objective genitive. Subjective genitive: "the revelation of Jesus Christ" (ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ) is understood as "what Jesus Christ reveals" (ὃ ἀποκαλύπτει ὁ Ἰησοῦς ...

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