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4

Based on a comparison of various translations of this passage, it would appear that the conjunction γὰρ does not necessarily always imply a direct dependency. The NETBible, for example, translates it as "in fact". So Jesus appears to be using this conjunction to "pivot" from the Sadducees misunderstanding of marriage in the afterlife, to their ...


3

Regardless of how the particle γὰρ is translated, I don't think a causal relationship between marriage and death can be avoided in these verses. If we take γὰρ in its basic sense of "for", then Jesus seems to be saying that there will be no marriage in the resurrection because there will be no death. To understand why Jesus would say this, we must first ...


1

Paul only speaks of having "visions" and "revelations" of the Lord - 2 Cor 12:1, Gal. 1:12-16. He uses the word ὤφθη (Greek - ōphthē) to equate all the appearances in 1 Cor 15:5-8. This word was used almost exclusively to denote supernatural/spiritual apparitions and the appearance to Paul was a "vision" of some sort. This indicates that Paul was using ὤφθη ...



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