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Hear me when I call, O God of my righteousness (צִדְקִ֗י)! (Psalm 4:1 NKJV) The question: In other words, how could David look at the Torah and conclude that God had conferred righteousness (צִדְקִ֗י) on him? Under the Law given through Moses, it is impossible for David to make this statement: knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the ...


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Many of the Psalms are written by David in the first person. He meditates on the Torah, which involves personalizing its teachings, and then creates songs that celebrate the truths in his own life. The reason that David could say of Yehovah that God was his righteousness has at least three bases: Yom Kippur God's merciful disposition David's prevailing ...


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The question boils down to whether "my soul" is: the subject of the imperative "bless" ("telling his should to bless..."), or the object of the "bless", in apposition to (i.e. sharing a syntactical slot with) "LORD" ("saying that the LORD is the soul..."). In addition to the contextual clues noted by other answers, the syntactical makers that allow ...


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This passage is not a blessing upon God but rather an exhortation that David is making to himself. In this context, "soul" simply means "self". David is telling himself to: speak wonderful things about God speak wonderful things about God's name remember the good ways God has enriched him remember that God is the one who forgives his machinations remember ...


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Does the singer command his soul to "Bless the LORD" , or is he saying that the LORD IS the soul within him? David is saying this psalm to his creator. He is definitely not calling himself "The Lord." Saying that "The Lord is the soul within him" can almost be interpreted as being The Messiah. David was anointed so technically, he was "a messiah," but ...


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1. The original contexts of "messianic" passages Many passages which are considered messianic have original contexts and meanings. Psalm 40 is foremostly written by David about himself. Were it not for it being quoted in Hebrews, I wouldn't have thought it very messianic at all. It is an aspirational Psalm which all faithful Israelites (and later, ...


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"Doe of the Dawn" appears to be an accurate translation. אַיָּלָה (ʾayyālāh) means "doe". (Morphologically, it is the feminine of אַיָּל, meaning "deer.") The word in question, אַיֶּ֥לֶת (ʾayyelet), is the construct form: "doe of...". The following word שַׁ֫חַר (šaḥar) is a common word for "dawn." It is prefixed with the definite article making the whole ...


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Does the one verse in the Psalm attribute iniquity to the Messiah? ...My iniquities (עֲ֭וֹנֹתַי) have overtaken me... (Psalm 40:12 NKJV) The first use of the the word עָווֹן: Cain said to the Lord, “My punishment is greater than I can bear. (Genesis 4:13 NKJV) If the Psalm is speaking about the Messiah one understanding would reflect the concept ...



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