Hot answers tagged

14

Interestingly, despite there being several good answers here, no one has yet raised the possibility that the word ראם (re'em) refers to an animal known as the aurochs or urus (Bos primigenius). (Edit: Bruce James' answer does say "the ראם is a type of cow", which would be consistent with the aurochs conclusion.) Around the turn of the twentieth century ...


9

While reading links to add to this question, I ran across Gesenius’ explanation (§129 c.), which seems to be too much of an answer to incorporate into the question. I therefore offer it as an answer, although I have a sense that it’s up for disputing, and I’d love to see other answers incorporating more recent scholarship. Gesenius labels this lamed ...


6

Psalm 23:5 You prepare a table before me... [OP]: Just what does this table represent? First, except in the most qualified sense, this is not what is in mind in Psalm 23:5 - The word "table" The Hebrew term for "table" is שֻׁלְחָן šulḥān (71× in the Hebrew Bible), still the common word in use in Israeli Hebrew. But in the world of ...


5

It appears that the LXX translator (rather than the NETS translator) "saw" a different text here. Typically זד gets translated (as you would expect), with something reflecting "insolent" or nasty:1 παράνομος : Ps 86[85]:14; 119[118]:85 ὑπερήφανος : Ps 119[118]:21, 51, 69, 78, 122 θρασύς : Prov 21:24 ἄνομος : Isa 13:11 On three occasions, however, there ...


4

The Idea in Brief The received Masoretic Text and its translation into English by the New American Standard Bible appear to be the best rendering of this verse in Hebrew and English, respectively. Psalm 12:7 (NASB) 7 You, O Lord, will keep them; You will preserve him from this generation forever. The logical antecedent of them are the “afflicted” ...


4

Ambiguity is present in all languages. Just as the referent of "them" in verse 7 is ambiguous in English, the Hebrew also allows several interpretations, although I think that the "scholars" mentioned in the question probably have the conclusion right. Below is the text of the KJV with the transliterated Hebrew (BHS). The bold words are those in question. ...


3

The question boils down to whether "my soul" is: the subject of the imperative "bless" ("telling his should to bless..."), or the object of the "bless", in apposition to (i.e. sharing a syntactical slot with) "LORD" ("saying that the LORD is the soul..."). In addition to the contextual clues noted by other answers, the syntactical makers that allow ...


3

I believe that the idea of "a new song" has many implications: It is anti-ritualistic: When ritual is performed over and over again, it becomes an old song. Emphasizing that the psalm is a new one means that it is not ritual. It is pure glorification, pure praise directed towards God, not some old mechanical routine that worshipers perform for the sake of ...


3

Although my initial reaction to this question was (not unlike the response in another answer here) that obviously this day-of-the-week superscription (DWS) reflects the Jewish liturgical background of the translator, this conclusion depends on several assumptions: The phrase "τῆς μιᾶς σαββάτων" is original to the Old Greek translation of the Psalms ...


3

The answer is no, because there is no real evidence that King David wrote any of the psalms attributed to him. James Luther Mays says in Psalms, page 9, that the personal identities of the authors of the Psalms are unknown. He says the quest for the origin of individual psalms leads to occasions in Israel's public exercise of religion, not to their authors. ...


2

1. Question Restatement: In Psalms 68:18, the Hebrew לָקַ֣חְתָּ is translated into the Greek, ἔλαβες, which denotes "to take": LXX, Ps 68:18 - You have ascended on high. You have led away captives. You have received gifts [taken gifts, ἔλαβες δόματα] - among men [ἐν ἀνθρώπῳ], yes, among the rebellious also, that Yah God might dwell there. So, in Eph. ...


2

It is possible that Yah is not formed by the first two letters of YHWH, but by the first and last. Nehemiah Gordon proposes this theory to account for Yah, while disagreeing with the scholarly consensus regarding the pronunciation Yahweh. He states that in ancient Hebrew, contractions were commonly formed by taking the first and final letters. ...


2

There seems to be no consensus as to just when the superscripts were added to the psalms, other than that they were probably not all added at the same time, and that they were not always fixed but evolved, not being considered sacred in the way the psalm texts were. I looked up Mark S. Smith's paper, 'Taking Inspiration:Authorship, Revelation, and the Book ...


2

"This superscription is especially difficult, and many medievals struggle to understand the possible historical context of "over the death of the son, if that is the correct translation." (JPS Study Bible pp1291-2) While the exact meaning and translation is uncertain, the superscription can be used to explain the unusual structure of Psalms 9 and 10. ...


2

The Lord tests the righteousness for sin, which he (the Lord) hates. That is, the wickedness of the righteous is in view according to Rabbi Shlomo Yitzchaki (Rashi). Please click the image below in order to enlarge. In this precise regard, the following graph depicts both the musical and logical division of phrases in the Masoretic Text. Please click the ...


2

Short Answer: The Psalmist most definitely meant to convey Divine favor. A good, old-fashioned word study bears this out readily. (See below.) So, in light of your understanding of the connotations of the English words, "blessed" would definitely be the better rendering. I think the logic of other translators is simply that "blessed" is not as accessible to ...


2

"Doe of the Dawn" appears to be an accurate translation. אַיָּלָה (ʾayyālāh) means "doe". (Morphologically, it is the feminine of אַיָּל, meaning "deer.") The word in question, אַיֶּ֥לֶת (ʾayyelet), is the construct form: "doe of...". The following word שַׁ֫חַר (šaḥar) is a common word for "dawn." It is prefixed with the definite article making the whole ...


1

Does the one verse in the Psalm attribute iniquity to the Messiah? ...My iniquities (עֲ֭וֹנֹתַי) have overtaken me... (Psalm 40:12 NKJV) The first use of the the word עָווֹן: Cain said to the Lord, “My punishment is greater than I can bear. (Genesis 4:13 NKJV) If the Psalm is speaking about the Messiah one understanding would reflect the concept ...


1

The NASB reads: He made the moon for the seasons... (Psalm 104:19 NASB) Which is the better meaning of עָשָׂ֣ה. The moon was made for the לְמוֹעֲדִ֑ים or "moed," the appointed times. The meaning in the Psalm must be consistent with the account of creation: Then God said, “Let there be lights in the firmament of the heavens to divide the day from ...


1

I don't think you can distinguish too much between the two; since the Jewish calendar is a lunar calendar, all "sacred seasons" are based on the lunar cycle. That being said, in the context of this psalm. it would seem to be merely speaking of how things are ordered in the sense of time keeping. The section from verses 19 through 30 seems to be related and ...


1

There was only one girl brought to the king. The subject of the song was not the king, but a young green lad emerging from puberty fantasy, who was not the king. The subject has access to the palace, presumably a young prince. The daughter of king of Tyre came to honour the king. But then she first honours the prince. But then the young prince fantasizes ...


1

This is probably not the best interpretation of Psalm 45. Mark S. Smith says, in 'Taking Inspiration: Authorship, Revelation, and the Book of Psalms', published in Psalms and Practice (edited by Stephen Breck Reid), page 262, that Psalm 45 is clearly a royal wedding song, but the suggestion is that this psalm would have been used for the wedding of any ...


1

"It is finished" The finished in v.28 "all was now finished", is the same Gr. telein as in v.30. Acc. to R.E. Brown1, this "has the connotation of completion as well as that of simple ending." He adds, "Occasionally it has sacrificial overtones." He also relates this telein to the telos of John 13:1 "he now loved them to the end", and to Acts 13:29, ...


1

To answer your first question, yes the theory appears to be considered a valid possibility. Dictionary of the Old Testament (2008) argues for the idea. The Psalms of Lament in Mark's Passion (2007) and An Introduction to the Old Testament Poetic Books offer it as an alternative view in footnotes Do Historical Matters Matter to Faith? (2012) states "The ...


1

I find it difficult to understand why people would not read the Hebrew of the Bible at its face value: כי סבבוני כלבים for they turn-around me like dogs for they circumvent me like dogs עדת מרעים הקףוני gathering of companions they encircle me gathering of evil-doers they close-in on me כארי ידי ורגלי as lions of my hands and my feet as lights of my ...


1

The question: What does the inclusion of τῆς μιᾶς σαββάτων in the LXX of Psa. 24:1 demonstrate about the religious identity of the translator(s) of Psa. 24:1 into the LXX? Forgive me if I'm oversimplifying, but doesn't the inclusion (or addition) of a phrase from the Hebrew Talmud logically suggest a Jewish religious identity? I don't see how it could ...


1

In the original Hebrew we find the LORD (yud-hey-vahv-hey) says to my Lord (Adonee). The second lord, being in the singular, is referring to a human king or nobleman. In historical context it becomes clear that this psalm, written by David, was meant to be sung by the kohenim during temple liturgy. The kohenim would sing "The LORD says to my lord (king ...


1

You should note that when this verse says that those Scriptures are fulfilled, this does not necessarily mean that a prophecy was made and now carried out. Fulfillment is not always about prophecy. Sometimes fulfillment is about character being brought out again in its fullness. The same God who, in all of His goodness, cared for David as expressed in ...


1

Elohim as “Gods” in the Old Testament The Hebrew word elohim lies behind the word “God” in the OT. Several instances of this word are plural, which may seem to indicate polytheism. For this reason, modern English translations often obscure the Hebrew text’s references to plural elohim. For example, the NASB renders the second elohim in Psa 82:1 as “rulers.” ...


1

Jesus was quoting Psalm 82:6. I said, “You are Elohim, sons of the Most High are you all.” Elohim is one of the names of God, but it does not exclusively refer to Him. For example, false gods are called elohim. You shall not recognize the gods [elohim] of others in My presence. (Exodus 20:3) So are angels. Yet, You have made him but ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible