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10

Interesting - the relevant bit of Psalm 23:4 is: גַּם כִּי־אֵלֵךְ בְּגֵיא צַלְמָוֶת gam kî-ʾēlēk bĕgêʾ ṣalmāwet As Briggs & Briggs translate, "Yea, when I walk in a gloomy ravine..." The preposition bĕ- has its basic meaning as "in" (in Brown-Driver-Briggs, and Driver did the "bĕ-" entry). The meaning "through" isn't listed, although it is by ...


6

My sense is that the answer is "Yes" -- it's a metaphor for a "real place", whatever that "place" might be. Psalm 23 has a series of shifting metaphors, but in the opening verses the governing concept is that of the LORD as "shepherd", so that the "green pastures", "still waters", and "right paths" of vv. 2-3 are all metaphorical places, of nourishing, of ...


4

The psalm appears to me to be talking about the king of Israel.1 While God is mentioned throughout Psalm 110, it is as the one who empowers Israel's king, who is the central figure of the song: God installs the 'lord' (the king of Israel) at the right hand of his (God's) throne (verse 1) God enables the rule of the king from Jerusalem even in the face of ...


4

Gesenius lexicon for Strong's 3050 has a slightly expanded explanation. There either יַהֲַוֹה or יַהְַוֶה is allowed to be an earlier pronounciation of YHWH, and the form Yah is explained by apocope to יָהוּ and then by omission of the unaccented וּ to the final יָהּ. As a further evidence, Gesenius points that "these forms are used promiscuously" (sic) at ...


4

It seems to me that there are two interconnected problems raised by the formulation of the question. I think it would help to disentangle them: "meek" v. "humble" The question of contrasting "meek" and "humble" is bound up with changing English usage. "meek" tends to be somewhat quaint in usage, and certainly not so prevalent in English usage as it once ...


4

Mark S. Smith says, in 'Taking Inspiration', published in Psalms and Practice, page 262, that Psalm 2 may be viewed as a psalm of instruction [for the king of Judah]. Gerald H. Wilson goes further in 'Songs for the City' (ibid, page 236) and says that in Psalm 2, God is described as defining the proper role for the righteous ruler. Extrapolating from these ...


3

Jewish authorities are split on this. As mentioned in his verse-by-verse lecture on this Psalm, my late rabbi, Rabbi Gedaliah Anemer, zt'l, offered both the view that: (1) this Psalm is about David himself, according to Rashi and the Redak, and the wicked nations are the Phillistines; and (2) this Psalm is a prophetic discussion where the king described is ...


3

The verse appears in the Masoretic Text and LXX as follows, respectively - Psalm 19:3 (MT) 3 אֵֽין־אֹמֶר וְאֵין דְּבָרִים בְּלִי נִשְׁמָע קֹולָֽם׃ The literal translation - There is no speech and there are no words: their voice is not heard. Psalm 19:1-3 (LXX) 3 οὐκ εἰσὶν λαλιαὶ οὐδὲ λόγοι ὧν οὐχὶ ἀκούονται αἱ φωναὶ αὐτῶν ...


3

The כִי- (-kî) 2nd fem sg suffix (which appears also in vv. 3 and 5) is explained as simply a rare (or possibly Aramaizing) form of the suffix: see Gesenius Kautzsch Cowley, §58g (for the verb) and §91e for the noun. Basically the same explanation is given in Joüon-Muraoka, at §61i (verb), and §94i (noun). See also p. 269 of Geoffrey Khan's discussion of ...


3

One argument that has been made is that the care for the righteous, i.e. the preservation of a man's (David's) bones in suffering, imagery is joined up with the passover theme. In the passover they were not to break any bones of the sacrificial Lamb. 46 “It must be eaten inside the house; take none of the meat outside the house. Do not break any of the ...


2

Short Answer No, the Bible does not teach that the earth is flat. Authorial Intent If we want to understand what the Bible teaches, we have to start by asking what the authors were trying to communicate to their original intended audiences. We can not start with our own questions and try to "see what the Bible says about it". This is something you learn ...


2

This is a messianic vision, and David is primarily concerned here with Christ and his place with God, and his Priesthood Authority. I see the first part of your question as having two elements. Element 1, "The Lord says to My Lord" is a conversation between God The Father (Elohim) and Christ The Son (Jesus Christ). Element 2, it was necessary to ...


2

This is a case of ambiguity in the translation, as some of the explanatory words like "where" or "which" are not present in the Hebrew. Unfortunately it is very hard to put into English without making a judgment about the details. See http://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/19-3.htm to read an interlinear text and http://biblehub.com/psalms/19-3.htm to see a ...


2

I believe that the text indicates that David wrote it in a reflectory fashion. In the annotation, the noun "טַ֭עְמוֹ" "his behavior" is the key to this. This noun is also used in 1 Samuel 21:14. The interesting thing about this noun is that it can also mean "taste", e.g. "אִם־יֶשׁ־טַ֝֗עַם בְּרִ֣יר חַלָּמֽוּת׃" "or is there any taste in the white of an ...


2

Psalm 90 is unique in that it is the only psalm that has a superscription that identifies it as having been written by Moses. Mark S. Smith says in 'Taking Inspiration', published in Psalms and Practice (edited by Stephen Breck Reid), page 245, that the scholarly consensus is that the superscriptions we see on many of the psalms are prose additions to the ...


2

The same two words: φόβος (fear) and τρόμος (trembling) are used (in different cases, as dictated by the context) in Phil. 2:12 and in the Greek version (Septuagint) of Ps. 2:11 and Ps. 55:5. So yes, it is likely that the author of Philippians is alluding to these two Psalms. Phil. 2:12: μετα φόβου καὶ τρόμου Ps. 2:11: ἐν φόβῳ καὶ (…) ἐν τρόμῳ Ps. 55:5: ...


1

In Mark 12:35-37, Jesus has not yet declared himself to be the Messiah, in fact he never really does in this gospel. The important thing is that the audience of Mark's Gospel has already been told that Jesus is the Messiah, or Christ. So, when Jesus talks about the Messiah, the audience knows that he is talking about himself, but the scribe does not. The ...


1

The "yoke" was in fact the law. To understand this we must examine the purpose, the requirements of, and the ultimate fulfillment of Mosaic Law. The Mosaic Law, given to Moses at Mt. Sinai, was a works based covenant entered into by God and His people the Children of Israel. The law was never intended for gentiles. It was given specifically to the ...


1

Psalm 44 was written during the Babylonian Exile, at a time of despair for the Jews, but hope that God would rescue them. Verse 11 tells us that the Jews have been defeated and scattered among the heathens, which can only be a reference to the Exile: 44:11:Thou hast given us like sheep appointed for meat; and hast scattered us among the heathen. God ...


1

Both translations are suitable! But they indicate the original Hebrew has a deeper meaning than can be conveyed in one sentence of English. The two main issues here is the meaning of the word "lack" and how to best translate that from the imperfective. The details: The first verse contains four Hebrew words, two phrases of two words each. The first says ...


1

It refers to the things that shine in the night sky that are not the "lesser light" (the moon). So, the Hebrew "stars" would also include the wandering stars that we refer to as planets, as well as the distant suns that we label as stars proper. To the Hebrew, they were all "stars".


1

The Idea in Brief The Masoretic Text does not indicate here the appearance of the consecutive waw with the Hebrew verb יָשַׁב (to dwell) but instead the consecutive waw with the Hebrew verb שׁוּב (to return). This conclusion comes from the marginalia of the Masoretic Text, which is the Massorah Parva. Discussion The Masoretic Text of the verse appears as ...


1

Reading only that part of John 19:31-37 and Psalm 34:20 can make seeing the association difficult. However, reading additional context and another, earlier Psalm of David helps. John 19:31-37, besides having “Not one of his bones will be broken,” has piercing and the flow of blood and water. John 19:33-36 (NIV) But when they came to Jesus and ...


1

As I am sure you know, the Hebrew word אֱלֹהִים is a plural noun and literally means “gods”, but in the Old Testament it is also the name of the God of Israel. In passages like this both meanings are (from a grammatical point of view) equally possible. In the Jewish and Christian Bible translations there is definitely a tendency to play down any potentially ...


1

The NET Bible tackles both of these statements in their translation and notes. 51:4 Against you – you above all – I have sinned; I have done what is evil in your sight. So you are just when you confront me; you are right when you condemn me. *1. They state the phrase "against you only" is hyperbole as the word used here for sin is ...


1

The most obvious answer is that David is indeed using hyberbole in his desire to acknowledge to God that he understands that he has transgressed His law and offend Him. However, it is possible that David was also using precise legal terminology in describing his sin as being only against God. Consider that it was not Uriah's death that was problematic, but ...



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