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10

Interesting - the relevant bit of Psalm 23:4 is: גַּם כִּי־אֵלֵךְ בְּגֵיא צַלְמָוֶת gam kî-ʾēlēk bĕgêʾ ṣalmāwet As Briggs & Briggs translate, "Yea, when I walk in a gloomy ravine..." The preposition bĕ- has its basic meaning as "in" (in Brown-Driver-Briggs, and Driver did the "bĕ-" entry). The meaning "through" isn't listed, although it is by ...


6

My sense is that the answer is "Yes" -- it's a metaphor for a "real place", whatever that "place" might be. Psalm 23 has a series of shifting metaphors, but in the opening verses the governing concept is that of the LORD as "shepherd", so that the "green pastures", "still waters", and "right paths" of vv. 2-3 are all metaphorical places, of nourishing, of ...


5

The Septuagint, a Greek translation of the most significant Hebrew scriptures, completed by 100 BC at the latest, chose to translate 'elohim as αγγελους (that is, 'angels') in Psalm 8.5 (actually verse number 8.6 in the LXX). In the second half of the first century, the author of Hebrews cites the Septuagint translation exactly, reiterating the opinion that ...


5

When Ezekiel was written The book of Ezekiel consists of thirteen sections, each dated by the number of years since 'the exile of Jehoiachin' (597 BC), beginning in the fifth year. The total span of time for Ezekiel's recorded prophecies was about twenty-two years (c. 592-570). Features of Psalm 137 This Psalm doesn't tell us exactly when it was ...


5

The Tanakh (the Old Testament) is replete with prophecies concerning the Messiah. Beginning with Genesis 3:15, also called the protoevangelium, there are hints, allusions, and explicit references to the identity, the roles, and the work of the promised Messiah. Jesus explained (likely) every one of them in His conversation with Cleopas and an unnamed ...


4

A helpful previous answer (n.b.: literature cited there is not repeated in this answer) hints at some of the complexities of this interesting question. Answering it definitively is complicated by our lack of "Edomite" sources and limited archaeological evidence. (And n.b.: the answer that follows is not "definitive"!) Although there is some evidence from the ...


4

It seems likely that Ps 72:20, "The prayers of David the son of Jesse are ended", refers to the completion of an early collection of Davidic psalms. The evidence does not really fit together seamlessly, but still converges on this conclusion. The text reads: כָּלּוּ תְפִלּוֹת דָּוִד בֶּן־יִשָׁי kālû tĕphillôt dāwīd ben yišāy1 (1) Ps 72:20 follows a ...


4

The psalm appears to me to be talking about the king of Israel.1 While God is mentioned throughout Psalm 110, it is as the one who empowers Israel's king, who is the central figure of the song: God installs the 'lord' (the king of Israel) at the right hand of his (God's) throne (verse 1) God enables the rule of the king from Jerusalem even in the face of ...


4

Mark S. Smith says, in 'Taking Inspiration', published in Psalms and Practice, page 262, that Psalm 2 may be viewed as a psalm of instruction [for the king of Judah]. Gerald H. Wilson goes further in 'Songs for the City' (ibid, page 236) and says that in Psalm 2, God is described as defining the proper role for the righteous ruler. Extrapolating from these ...


4

Gesenius lexicon for Strong's 3050 has a slightly expanded explanation. There either יַהֲַוֹה or יַהְַוֶה is allowed to be an earlier pronounciation of YHWH, and the form Yah is explained by apocope to יָהוּ and then by omission of the unaccented וּ to the final יָהּ. As a further evidence, Gesenius points that "these forms are used promiscuously" (sic) at ...


3

Jewish authorities are split on this. As mentioned in his verse-by-verse lecture on this Psalm, my late rabbi, Rabbi Gedaliah Anemer, zt'l, offered both the view that: (1) this Psalm is about David himself, according to Rashi and the Redak, and the wicked nations are the Phillistines; and (2) this Psalm is a prophetic discussion where the king described is ...


3

It seems to me that there are two interconnected problems raised by the formulation of the question. I think it would help to disentangle them: "meek" v. "humble" The question of contrasting "meek" and "humble" is bound up with changing English usage. "meek" tends to be somewhat quaint in usage, and certainly not so prevalent in English usage as it once ...


3

One argument that has been made is that the care for the righteous, i.e. the preservation of a man's (David's) bones in suffering, imagery is joined up with the passover theme. In the passover they were not to break any bones of the sacrificial Lamb. 46 “It must be eaten inside the house; take none of the meat outside the house. Do not break any of the ...


3

The verse appears in the Masoretic Text and LXX as follows, respectively - Psalm 19:3 (MT) 3 אֵֽין־אֹמֶר וְאֵין דְּבָרִים בְּלִי נִשְׁמָע קֹולָֽם׃ The literal translation - There is no speech and there are no words: their voice is not heard. Psalm 19:1-3 (LXX) 3 οὐκ εἰσὶν λαλιαὶ οὐδὲ λόγοι ὧν οὐχὶ ἀκούονται αἱ φωναὶ αὐτῶν ...


3

The כִי- (-kî) 2nd fem sg suffix (which appears also in vv. 3 and 5) is explained as simply a rare (or possibly Aramaizing) form of the suffix: see Gesenius Kautzsch Cowley, §58g (for the verb) and §91e for the noun. Basically the same explanation is given in Joüon-Muraoka, at §61i (verb), and §94i (noun). See also p. 269 of Geoffrey Khan's discussion of ...


2

I believe that the text indicates that David wrote it in a reflectory fashion. In the annotation, the noun "טַ֭עְמוֹ" "his behavior" is the key to this. This noun is also used in 1 Samuel 21:14. The interesting thing about this noun is that it can also mean "taste", e.g. "אִם־יֶשׁ־טַ֝֗עַם בְּרִ֣יר חַלָּמֽוּת׃" "or is there any taste in the white of an ...


2

This is a case of ambiguity in the translation, as some of the explanatory words like "where" or "which" are not present in the Hebrew. Unfortunately it is very hard to put into English without making a judgment about the details. See http://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/19-3.htm to read an interlinear text and http://biblehub.com/psalms/19-3.htm to see a ...


2

This is a messianic vision, and David is primarily concerned here with Christ and his place with God, and his Priesthood Authority. I see the first part of your question as having two elements. Element 1, "The Lord says to My Lord" is a conversation between God The Father (Elohim) and Christ The Son (Jesus Christ). Element 2, it was necessary to ...


1

The "yoke" was in fact the law. To understand this we must examine the purpose, the requirements of, and the ultimate fulfillment of Mosaic Law. The Mosaic Law, given to Moses at Mt. Sinai, was a works based covenant entered into by God and His people the Children of Israel. The law was never intended for gentiles. It was given specifically to the ...


1

Psalm 44 was written during the Babylonian Exile, at a time of despair for the Jews, but hope that God would rescue them. Verse 11 tells us that the Jews have been defeated and scattered among the heathens, which can only be a reference to the Exile: 44:11:Thou hast given us like sheep appointed for meat; and hast scattered us among the heathen. God ...


1

Both translations are suitable! But they indicate the original Hebrew has a deeper meaning than can be conveyed in one sentence of English. The two main issues here is the meaning of the word "lack" and how to best translate that from the imperfective. The details: The first verse contains four Hebrew words, two phrases of two words each. The first says ...


1

It refers to the things that shine in the night sky that are not the "lesser light" (the moon). So, the Hebrew "stars" would also include the wandering stars that we refer to as planets, as well as the distant suns that we label as stars proper. To the Hebrew, they were all "stars".


1

The Idea in Brief The Masoretic Text does not indicate here the appearance of the consecutive waw with the Hebrew verb יָשַׁב (to dwell) but instead the consecutive waw with the Hebrew verb שׁוּב (to return). This conclusion comes from the marginalia of the Masoretic Text, which is the Massorah Parva. Discussion The Masoretic Text of the verse appears as ...


1

Reading only that part of John 19:31-37 and Psalm 34:20 can make seeing the association difficult. However, reading additional context and another, earlier Psalm of David helps. John 19:31-37, besides having “Not one of his bones will be broken,” has piercing and the flow of blood and water. John 19:33-36 (NIV) But when they came to Jesus and ...


1

As I am sure you know, the Hebrew word אֱלֹהִים is a plural noun and literally means “gods”, but in the Old Testament it is also the name of the God of Israel. In passages like this both meanings are (from a grammatical point of view) equally possible. In the Jewish and Christian Bible translations there is definitely a tendency to play down any potentially ...


1

The NET Bible tackles both of these statements in their translation and notes. 51:4 Against you – you above all – I have sinned; I have done what is evil in your sight. So you are just when you confront me; you are right when you condemn me. *1. They state the phrase "against you only" is hyperbole as the word used here for sin is ...


1

The most obvious answer is that David is indeed using hyberbole in his desire to acknowledge to God that he understands that he has transgressed His law and offend Him. However, it is possible that David was also using precise legal terminology in describing his sin as being only against God. Consider that it was not Uriah's death that was problematic, but ...



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