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32

David Boswell is absolutely correct - animal names are consistently difficult to translate. The word under inspection is reim (Hebrew: ראם). The word also comes up in Numbers 23:22: God brought them out of Egypt; they have the strength of a wild ox. (NIV) Here are some commentaries. ...It is difficult to say what kind of beast is intended by the ...


14

First, to recap, Jesus had just made some pretty huge claims, culminating in the one you quoted in v30. They Jews were incensed by this, and about to stone him for blasphemy, when he went with the "not guilty" plea, and used this quote from Psalm 82 as his defense. His argument is this: If God himself (speaking through the Psalmist) can refer to another as ...


12

This question was just asked over at the Judaism site, so I'll repost my answer from there here. In general it is difficult to find pre-Christian rabbinic commentary, since the earliest rabbinic commentaries began coalescing around the end of the Second Temple period, in the first century CE. So while early midrashic collections like the Sifra and Mekhilta ...


12

I am by no means a Greek scholar and I am not really giving an answer here, but rather a, possible, helpful clue that may help in finding the answer. I looked at the LXX (that includes English translation) for Psalms 22:21 and have noticed that, it too, uses the term "unicorn". The Greek word that is used in the LXX (Ps 22:21) is monokeros (μονόκερως). ...


11

Not a Hyperbolic Expression The Text of Psalm 51:4: לְךָ לְבַדְּךָ ׀ חָטָאתִי וְהָרַע בְּעֵינֶיךָ עָשִׂיתִי לְמַעַן תִּצְדַּק בְּדָבְרֶךָ תִּזְכֶּה בְשָׁפְטֶֽךָ׃ Explanation 1) "Against you alone" (לְךָ לְבַדְּךָ): This is a prayer of David for repentance (a penitential psalm), and while he sinned against many others in the affair with Bathsheba, ...


10

Raca means "empty headed," very similar to how we use "fool" today. Jesus also uses moros in that verse, which is the root of moron. While we normally need to take care not to commit the root fallacy, this one does mean the same thing. The word used in Hebrew is nabal which has more to do with consistently making bad moral choices. Brown, Driver, Briggs ...


10

This is an attempt to give a brief theological answer, an answer that examines the words in their contexts and in their broader theological context, rather than a lexical investigation. The fool in Psalm 14/53 and in Proverbs is someone who is in moral antithesis to God. This is not an insult or a slur; it is an accurate description of the state of his ...


10

Jesus is quoting a version of Psalm 8 that corresponds to the Septuagint (Greek translation), which does contain significant variations from the Masoretic (Hebrew version). The Masoretic is used for most versions of the Christian Old Testament in English. The Septuagint was completed roughly two centuries before Jesus did his teaching. Psalm 8.31 εκ ...


9

This is proof-positive of Greek primacy of the Old Testament Here are the facts: 13 is an unlucky number. It is terribly unlucky to have a camel on your back. In the Septuagint, the Psalms are numbered differently (and correctly) so that the psalm in question is #12. 12 is a lucky number. 6 is half as lucky. 12:6 is one and a half lucky. In Greek, the ...


9

The question is really an issue of what kind of cosmology the authors of the various biblical books assume in the course of their writing. When we read the Hebrew scriptures, the few books that have anything to say on the subject never explicitly say 'the earth is flat'. But if we can determine the overall shape of the cosmos as the different writers ...


9

Interesting - the relevant bit of Psalm 23:4 is: גַּם כִּי־אֵלֵךְ בְּגֵיא צַלְמָוֶת gam kî-ʾēlēk bĕgêʾ ṣalmāwet As Briggs & Briggs translate, "Yea, when I walk in a gloomy ravine..." The preposition bĕ- has its basic meaning as "in" (in Brown-Driver-Briggs, and Driver did the "bĕ-" entry). The meaning "through" isn't listed, although it is by ...


8

I asked about this question at the Judaism.SE site and was told that it is difficult to find pre-Christian Rabbinic sources. It seems that the current understanding of Psalm 22 within Judaism deals with the plight of the Jewish Nation in Exile.1 However, Rashi's 11th-century commentary states that Our Sages, however, interpreted it [(ayeleth hashachar, ...


8

The first and most important clue is found in the annotation of the Psalm: For the Leader; upon Aijeleth ha-Shahar. A Psalm of David "Of David" can mean that it was written by, about, or in the style of David. Since the Psalm is written in the first person, any way you look at it, the subject must have originally been David. Nothing in the Psalm ...


8

It is true that all Jewish prayerbooks and scriptural resources exclude a "nun" line in Psalm 145. It is also true that the Septuagint, the Greek translation of the Bible read by Greek-speaking Jews and Christians, the Peshitta – the translation used by the Syrian church, and one of the Dead Sea Scrolls’ Psalms texts, presumably used by members of the ...


7

Per Strong's, the word itself means to lift up, exalt. However, when we see it used in Psalms (per the question), it's accepted that this is a musical term used to accentuate the passage, pause or show interruption. (Again, this is per Strong's.) Psalms 3:1-2 (NASB) 1 O LORD, how my adversaries have increased! Many are rising up against me. 2 ...


7

"yakar" is a word for which there isn't a good single-word English translation in this context. "yakar" is "dear" in the sense that "dear" is used in the UK to mean something costly or high priced. "Costly" in OT Hebrew as in English also has overtones of "regret" as in expressions such as "we paid a high price for that victory", or, "you paid too much for ...


7

hekal(הֵיכָל) means 'palace' or 'temple'. It is used to refer to the Solomon's Temple but also (for example) the house at Shiloh in David's time, here in 1 Samuel 1:9 After they had eaten and drunk in Shiloh, Hannah rose. Now Eli the priest was sitting on the seat beside the doorpost of the temple of the Lord. ESV Among other usages, it can also refer ...


7

OK, moving this from a comment to an answer. Note about "tenses" in Biblical Hebrew. Technically speaking the idea of "zman 'avar"/'past tense' is Modern Hebrew. In Biblical Hebrew, you have aspects rather than tenses: perfect/imperfect. So [lo] halakh is in what's called the simple perfect[ive] aspect. The verbal system in Biblical Hebrew is somewhat ...


6

As evocative as the phrase is, the context excludes an astronomical interpretation. The poetry of the Psalms comes largely from use of repetition and parallelism. A psalmist often repeats the same idea in two or more phrasings in order to solidify what they are speaking of. In this psalm, we see: "God reigns over the nations" "The princes of the ...


6

See this overview from jewishencyclopedia.com. The overview breaks out the Psalms into classes: Praise Elegy Didactic A more detailed analysis could probably add more classifications such as historical, epic, etc. Psalms, like Proverbs, is both an accretional work and an anthology. It is a collection by genre rather than by theme, and so, unlike a ...


6

Addressing the question in the title: The Hebrew phrase b'nei Yisrael refers to Jews (the sons of Jacob and all their descendants -- plus converts even though they technically aren't sons of Jacob). You usually see it in this form -- Israel, not Jacob. The only Tanakh uses of b'nei Yaakov (Jacob) I can think of are either referring to his sons ...


6

First I checked that the same phrase appears in both Col 3:16 and Eph 5:19. It does. psalmois, humnois, kai odais pneumatikais I then checked those words out in the lexicons and compared the words they translated in the LXX. psalmois - often for neginah, which means song, or mizmor, also meaning song. Used 92 times in the LXX but mostly in the title ...


6

The context of the two books gives an insight: In the Psalm, the Psalmist is saying that those who follow God (The Righteous) will flourish. The Righteous delight in the LORD (vs 4-5), they Praise the LORD (vs 1-3), etc. Isaiah on the other hand is a book of Judgement on Israel. Isaiah 57 looks at the fact that although Israel is chosen as God's people, ...


6

David E. Malick writes: This division seems to be older than the oldest extant manuscripts of the Psalms since it exists in all manuscripts. The order of the last two books (IV and V) do differ in some of the Dead Sea Scrolls suggesting that their final order was not canonized until around the time of Christ. But all of the Psalms remain present (The LXX ...


6

Paul made a direct word-for-word quote not from Psalm 37:8, but from the Septuagint of Psalm 4:4 - ...ὀργίζεσθε καὶ μὴ ἁμαρτάνετε... In the Hebrew of Psalm 4:4, the verb for "anger" is רָגַז which has the connotation of perturbing, or being perturbed. In the 41 instances that this verb occurs in the Hebrew Bible in various conjugations and tenses, the ...


6

A good case can be made for the reading as a verb instead of a noun with a preposition prefixed. Regarding verse 16, Walter Kaiser (The Messiah in the Old Testament, footnote 10 pg. 115 and 116) lays out his argument for the verb by referencing the Vulgate, the Syriac, and the Septuagint, all of which have verbs. He takes the form ka'ari as the irregular ...


6

מזמור = "psalm" לדוד = "of David" The order doesn't matter. If you wanted to translate the slight difference, you could translate one as "a psalm of David" and the other as "one of David's psalms." For what it's worth, "David" comes first in Psalms 24, 40, 68, 101, 109, 110, 139. The word "psalm" comes first in the other 28 usages. Thus the order found in ...


6

"Born" is usually a conjugation of the verb ילד. However, in Hebrew, different words can have an overlap in meaning, and this appears to be the case with יחם. While יחם simply means "to be hot" (cp. Eze. 24:11), it may also be used idiomatically in the realm of sexuality, meaning "to be aroused." This phenomenon is not unlike that which occurs in many other ...


6

A supplement to Mark Edward's answer: Though "strength" and "praise" are two very different words, the "strength" in Ps 8 in the Hebrew text comes from "mouths", and the psalm is about praising God. It is not a stretch to think that the psalm talks about praise from the infants' mouths. Moreover, the New Testament seldom quotes the Old Testament word for ...


6

Is Matthew 5.5 in the same line of thought? To start, we should double check that Matthew 5.5 is relevant to interpreting any texts from the Hebrew scriptures ('Old Testament'). We want to be careful not to group it with those texts if they're not even using the same language. A simple way to verify this is to compare Matthew 5.5 with the Greek translation ...



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