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12

The Greek text of Phil. 4:3 according to the Textus Receptus states, καὶ ἐρωτῶ καὶ σέ σύζυγε γνήσιε συλλαμβάνου αὐταῖς αἵτινες ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ συνήθλησάν μοι μετὰ καὶ Κλήμεντος καὶ τῶν λοιπῶν συνεργῶν μου ὧν τὰ ὀνόματα ἐν βίβλῳ ζωῆς TR, 1550 The Greek word σύζυγε is declined in vocative case, either the feminine or masculine gender, and singular ...


9

Katatomē in Philippians 3:2 means "mutilation". It isn't used elsewhere in the New Testament, nor is the cognate verb κατατέμνω. However, the latter is used four times in the LXX. A glance over the three that correspond closely to the Hebrew (and thus to the English I'm able to pull up at Biblegateway) will give you an idea about the background associations ...


8

It is correct to say that σύζυγος (literally “yoke-mate, one of a pair”) can be masculine or feminine, and that it is very often used to mean “wife” in classical and post-classical Greek. But in this passage it is modified by the adjective γνήσιε, which is unmistakeably masculine singular vocative. Thus, “wife” is not possible here. Anyway, as you point ...


5

Greek text: 5 Τοῦτο φρονεῖτε ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, 6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ, 7 ἀλλ’ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος· καὶ σχήματι εὑρεθεὶς ὡς ἄνθρωπος 8 ἐταπείνωσεν ἑαυτὸν γενόμενος ὑπήκοος μέχρι θανάτου, θανάτου δὲ σταυροῦ. NA28 English Translation: 5 Have this ...


4

Katachthonios in Ancient Greek Literature Literally speaking, καταχθόνιος just means 'under the earth', from the prefix κατά (down) and χθόνιος ([under] earth). But it seems to have been coined with a specific referent:1 Persephone, goddess of the underworld, is daughter of Demeter, goddess of corn, and Zeus Chthonios, the farmer's friend, can scarcely ...


3

The word "apostle" is a partial transliteration of the Greek ἀπόστολον or "apostolon." Due to our regular use of "apostle" in English, we have attached meaning to that word as if it were distinct from a word like messenger. However, "apostolon" means a messenger or one sent on a mission. In Greek, "apostolon" is used to refer to messengers as well as Jesus' ...


2

And I entreat thee also, true yoke-fellow - It is not known to whom the apostle refers here. No name is mentioned, and conjecture is useless. All that is known is, that it was someone whom Paul regarded as associated with himself in labor, and one who was so prominent at Philippi that it would be understood who was referred to, without more particularly ...


2

The differences may also be seen from the Greek words used: For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God,  not of works (ἔργον ergon), lest anyone should boast , (Ephesians 2:8-9 NKJV) ἔργον ergon - From ἔργω ergō (a primary but obsolete word; to work); toil (as an effort or occupation); by ...


2

Philippians is a 'prison epistle', as we can see from verse 1:7, where Paul speaks of being in bonds - or imprisoned: Philippians 1:7 (KJV): Even as it is meet for me to think this of you all, because I have you in my heart; inasmuch as both in my bonds, and in the defence and confirmation of the gospel, ye all are partakers of my grace. In verse 19 ...


1

It means that God exalted him above all others, just as God gave him a name that is above all others. The Wycliffe Bible uses the word "enhanced," which is just another way of saying exalted. Enhance: verb (used with object), enhanced, enhancing. to raise to a higher degree; intensify; magnify: The candelight enhanced her beauty. to raise the ...


1

I think a problem comes in assuming that the "name above every name" is "Jesus". Jesus/Yeshua was a common name at the time (http://www.jesus.org/is-jesus-god/names-of-jesus/jesus-an-ordinary-name.html). Joshua appears to been as common a Jewish name as John is in English. Even today the name Jesus is common in some parts of the world. However, the name/...


1

Even the ESV didn't mess up this one, as διὸ does mean "therefore/wherefore/for this reason..." It is saying that whatever follows is at least partially because of whatever precedes. I don't see a conflict between these two words in this passage. Philippians 2:9 does not say that Christ earned a prize (implying that God was forced to give Christ this ...


1

The clause 'he emptied himself' points to the exinanition of Christ. Christ made his self empty, zero, nil. This didn't mean that his individuality/personhood was removed or was gone. He remained the divine person he was the time he became flesh (John 1:1: 1:14).Christ did not cease to have all the fullness of the Godhead. He did not empty any of his divine ...


1

The adverb 'out' is required by the context of the text in question. Philippians 2:12 itself does not speak of working for our salvation which have the sense of saving ourselves from what Christ had saved us from. Rather, it speaks of showing or expressing our salvation by obedience. 12 Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, so now, not only ...


1

As Radz mentioned, there seems to be instances in the NT of both meanings ("appearance" and "nature"). I would say that "nature" fits in the case of Phil 2:6-7 because of the context - namely the contrast between "he existed" (ὑπάρχω (5225)) and "he took" (λαμβάνω (2983)). The first form (being God) is the original, the second form (a servant) was an ...



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