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13

The (relatively) small amount of bronze needed to make that serpent/snake (or נְחַשׁ נְחֹשֶׁת nĕḥaš nĕḥōšet) in the story of Num 21:4-9,1 even if it was as large as the monument now on Mount Nebo in Jordan,... ...would still have been quite small compared to the amount of bronze (let alone silver and gold) needed to make the utensils required for the ...


12

I will show three things: 1) The law has no retroactive force: a man is not condemned for breaking a law which did not exist until later. 2) Moses did not break the law you quote. 3) God did not defend Moses' marriage, but his person. 1) THE LAW HAS NO RETROACTIVE FORCE Abraham married his half-sister. Lev 20:17 ‘If a man takes his sister, his ...


7

1. Use of the Hebrew word satan The Hebrew word satan means, in a general sense, 'opponent', 'adversary', or 'accuser'. As with any word in any language, satan does not have a one-size-fits-all application. It can mean different things in different contexts. In my answer on this question, I surveyed a few of the Hebrew texts that use the word satan. On one ...


7

It is the 3rd and 7th day after touching the dead corpse That seems somewhat implied from the context of the verses you quote. I honestly would not have ever thought to consider Tuesday/Saturday, but in thinking about your question, I could see how someone might question it (though days of the week are not really mentioned in context). However, the ...


6

This is a question that has caused problems with commentators and interpreters for centuries. Speaking most strictly, Cush and Midia are not the same place. Midia was on the Arabian peninsula (in the region of Jordan and Saudi Arabia today) while Cush proper was in the Sudan and Ethiopia region. In fact, the Septuagint uniformly translates Cush with ...


5

This is just a brief addendum to a previous answer. The idiom אֵין מִסְפָּר (ʾên mispār) appears 16x in the Tanak: Gen. 41:49; Jdg. 6:5; 7:12; 1 Chr. 22:4, 16; 2 Chr. 12:3; Job 5:9; 9:10; 21:33; Ps. 40:13; 104:25; 105:34; 147:5; Cant. 6:8; Jer. 2:32; Joel 1:6. I wholly agree with H3br3wHamm3r81's overall conclusion. However, my own sense is that if you ...


4

Analysis of Hebrew Text וַיִּצְבֹּר יוֹסֵף בַּר כְּחוֹל הַיָּם הַרְבֵּה מְאֹד עַד כִּי חָדַל לִסְפֹּר כִּי אֵין מִסְפָּר וַיִּצְבֹּר - a verb conjugated in binyan Pa'al, 3rd person, masculine gender, singular number, imperfect tense, with vav ha-hipukh, thus converting tense to perfect. It means, "and he gathered in a pile; he piled up." יוֹסֵף - a ...


3

As the judgment was against all those counted in the census commentaries that I have consulted strictly assume the judgment was literally agains only these 'men' excluding the Levites. I think there is not much to add from what you have already listed except one item. The census counted those where were 'able to fight', i.e. men over twenty, not from the ...


3

From Constable's "Notes" in the NET Bible: The statement of Moses’ humility (v. 3) was not a boastful claim by the writer but an inspired statement of fact. We need not conclude that another writer added it later since it is essential to the argument of this passage. That another writer added it later is a distinct possibility, however. One writer ...


3

They're actually different words, even though they look almost identical! בָּנוּ could be "they built", from the root b.n.y. But in that case it takes penultimate stress (ba-NU) as indicated by the cantillation mark (see, for example, Gen. 11:5). Here it is BA-nu, showing us that it is the prefix בּ (b-), "in," "with," or "through," plus the pronominal ...


3

The verb דִּבֵּר (dibber), which is conjugated in binyan Pi'el, is commonly followed by prepositions to indicate the person to or with whom the speaker is speaking. For example, אֶל (Gen. 8:15), לְ (Jdg. 14:7), עִם (Gen. 31:29), אֵת (Gen. 23:8), עַל (Jer. 6:10), and of course, בְּ (Hab. 2:1). In Num. 12:1 and 12:8, the context implies that Aharon and Miryam ...


3

The preposition ב can be translated in many different ways (in, with, through, against, while, when, for, by etc.) depending on how it functions in its context. In num 12:1 it makes good sense to translate it as "against" but the case could be made for translating it as simply "to" or "with." In v2, the case could be made for translating it as simply "to ...


2

The Masoretic translation makes the verse easier to understand: 'None have beheld iniquity in Jacob, Neither hath one seen perverseness in Israel' 'perverseness' can alternatively be translated as 'calamity' - so Rabbi Hertz Then we read: Because there are no gross-injustice (iniquity) in Israel God remains on their side and visit no calamities on them. ...


2

Not entirely sure that there is just one, or even two answers to this conundrum. I have pondered this on many occasions and done some research as well. Some of the answers I have come across are: Anger. Moses got angry and his anger lead him to not follow his instructions properly so I suppose you could say anger resulting in disobedience...? Pride. He ...


1

What we must remember is that this is the 2nd time Moses is addressing the "Rock". God's commandment to Moses was explicit,(Ex. 17:5-6) And the Lord said unto Moses, Go on before the people, and take with thee of the elders of Israel; and thy rod, wherewith thou smotest the river, take in thine hand, and go. 6 Behold, I will stand before thee ...


1

Numbers 20:12 gives two reasons: 1) Moses did not believe God and 2) failed to sanctify God. Moses knew striking the rock before had brought forth water and did not believe speaking alone would bring the same results. His attitude and statement "must we" indicate the failure to sanctify God. A parallel would be being baptized into Christ (Galatians 3:27) ...


1

Jewish tradition holds that the written Torah was dictated by God to Moses, and that Moses had no discretion as to what to write, even the last verses of the Torah that describe his death. See Rashi to Deut. 34:5. Although Moses had to write down everything as dictated, traditional commentators believe that he found a way to make a personal statement that ...


1

Obviously, it could only have at best been written by Joshua. Moses received the Torah, and perhaps a confirmation of the oral and written history that had pervaded/preceded the culture of Israel. Then someone else would have to write it down. Otherwise, the ending passage of Deuteronomy was also written by Moses? How could a dead Moses have written his ...


1

"The Star" is a reference to the Messiah, and "out of Jacob" is interpreted even by Jewish commentaries as "the son of David" which you quote. Interestingly, many in Matthew's day called Jesus "son of David"(Matt. 9:27,12:23,15:22,20:30,20:31,21:9,21:15) so the teachers of the day must have taught that the Messiah was the "son of David". In the KJV it ...


1

One explanation is that God isn't speaking according to the strict letter of the law. The verse is saying that "He doesn't [want to] see evil in Israel". He looks to ignore it, as it were. This explanation is proffered by the Rashbam, Rashi and Onkelos, who explain that the latter clause of the verse ותרועת מלך בו stems from the word friendship/companionship ...


1

Explanation Number 1: God did not perceive iniquity that is "in Jacob" (people of Israel), for when they violate His words, He is not meticulous with them to meditate upon their falsity and their perversity in that they violate His law. Explanation Number 2: "he" in that verse referes to Balaam. Balaam did not perceive any practice of idolatry or robbery ...



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