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12

I will show three things: 1) The law has no retroactive force: a man is not condemned for breaking a law which did not exist until later. 2) Moses did not break the law you quote. 3) God did not defend Moses' marriage, but his person. 1) THE LAW HAS NO RETROACTIVE FORCE Abraham married his half-sister. Lev 20:17 ‘If a man takes his sister, his ...


8

Could not the Lord have "instigated" the people to spy the land through indirect means, and therefore solve the conundrum? For example, Satan incited David to number the Israelites in a census (1 Chr 21:1), but in 2 Sam 24:1 it is the Lord who is the subject of the Hebrew verb סוּת, and therefore in the immediate grammatical context it was the Lord who had ...


5

This is just a brief addendum to a previous answer. The idiom אֵין מִסְפָּר (ʾên mispār) appears 16x in the Tanak: Gen. 41:49; Jdg. 6:5; 7:12; 1 Chr. 22:4, 16; 2 Chr. 12:3; Job 5:9; 9:10; 21:33; Ps. 40:13; 104:25; 105:34; 147:5; Cant. 6:8; Jer. 2:32; Joel 1:6. I wholly agree with H3br3wHamm3r81's overall conclusion. However, my own sense is that if you ...


4

Analysis of Hebrew Text וַיִּצְבֹּר יוֹסֵף בַּר כְּחוֹל הַיָּם הַרְבֵּה מְאֹד עַד כִּי חָדַל לִסְפֹּר כִּי אֵין מִסְפָּר וַיִּצְבֹּר - a verb conjugated in binyan Pa'al, 3rd person, masculine gender, singular number, imperfect tense, with vav ha-hipukh, thus converting tense to perfect. It means, "and he gathered in a pile; he piled up." יוֹסֵף - a ...


4

What Moses did wrong is exactly what the Hebrews did wrong when they sent the spies and they believed the pesimistic report given by the spies. In both cases, G-d told them that they could do something that in any other circumstance would be considered a miracle . . . and they didn't believe Him. Consider these facts. At Exodus 6:8 G-d promises to the ...


4

Under torah a woman does not have standing to bring a legal claim against her husband, nor can she initiate a divorce. It seems to follow, then, that she could not initiate the sotah ritual against a straying husband. (Note that if there has been adultery, then this means the other man's wife, if he is married, has no recourse against him.) According to ...


3

The verb דִּבֵּר (dibber), which is conjugated in binyan Pi'el, is commonly followed by prepositions to indicate the person to or with whom the speaker is speaking. For example, אֶל (Gen. 8:15), לְ (Jdg. 14:7), עִם (Gen. 31:29), אֵת (Gen. 23:8), עַל (Jer. 6:10), and of course, בְּ (Hab. 2:1). In Num. 12:1 and 12:8, the context implies that Aharon and Miryam ...


3

The preposition ב can be translated in many different ways (in, with, through, against, while, when, for, by etc.) depending on how it functions in its context. In num 12:1 it makes good sense to translate it as "against" but the case could be made for translating it as simply "to" or "with." In v2, the case could be made for translating it as simply "to ...


3

The phrase here, as in many places in Exodus through Deuteronomy where God gives commands, is בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל. Literally this is "sons of Israel", though some translations say "children of Israel" instead. In Hebrew all nouns have gender (there is no neuter), so a masculine plural like בְּנֵי means either an all-male group or a mixed group. (You only ...


3

The children of Moab comprised a smaller tribe within the larger federation of tribes referred to as Midianites, or simply Midian. Earlier in the book of Numbers, we learn that the Israelites "began to play the harlot with the daughters of Moab" (25:1). Moreover, the Israelites attended the sacrifices of the Moabites, they ate among the Moabites (perhaps ...


2

Frankly, I think it is a scribal error. Examination of the Samaritan Pentateuch reveals עלת instead of עלה. See: Blayney, Benjamini: Pentateuchus Hebraeo-Samaritanus, via Google Books, p. 415.


2

If you feel that עולה תמיד us the expected form then the second form is simply extended use of the construct form. Biblical Hebrew is fluid and is often flexible with the grammatical constructs, a sort of linguistic poetic licence (although usually adopted for reasons of preferential rhythm, and not arbitrarily). For a few examples where the construct state ...


2

Until the point that Aharon is replaced by his son, he's the one and only high priest. The title 'high priest' doesn't co-occur with Aharon in the narrative. It's Aharon and his sons. So, any instructions related to the high priest tend to attach to his name. The whole formal structure of the idea of the 'kohen ha-gadol' doesn't really clarify until much ...


2

The aggadic interpretation shared by many Jewish commentators is that the basis for the name change is that Moses prayed for Joshua. Indeed Rashi explains that he prays he be saved from the counsel of the spies. Why he didn't pray for Caleb as well is a question many commentators who take this line have great difficulty understanding (see the Kli Yakar). ...


2

הוֹשֵׁעַ means "saves", while יְהוֹשֻׁעַ means "God saves". Rashi explains: And Moses called Hoshea…: He prayed on his behalf, “May God save you from the counsel of the spies.” [The name יְהוֹשֻׁעַ is a compounded form of יָהּ יוֹשִׁיעֲךָ, May God save you.]- [Sotah 34b] Sotah 34b (in the Babylonian talmud) relates the following (Soncino translation): ...


2

The answer to this question is that a basic is fact missed: σωτηρίοv, usually in the genitive form (σωτηρίου), is an adjective (also inflected here as σωτήρια) used throughout Leviticus consistently to translate "peace offerings". It often follows "sacrifices" akin to τῶν θυσιῶν τοῦ σωτηρίου. In fact, it follows "sacrifices" in this verse (Num.29:39). So, ...


2

As you allude to, in Gen 26:31, LXX renders "sent them away in peace" (beshalom) as "sent them away meta soterias." Similarly, Gen 28:21; 44:17. I frankly cannot attribute three separate occurrences to scribal error or a textual issue. I suppose one could say that the translator wasn't quite up to the task. BUT. I think one of the things that jars moderns ...


2

The Masoretic translation makes the verse easier to understand: 'None have beheld iniquity in Jacob, Neither hath one seen perverseness in Israel' 'perverseness' can alternatively be translated as 'calamity' - so Rabbi Hertz Then we read: Because there are no gross-injustice (iniquity) in Israel God remains on their side and visit no calamities on them. ...


1

"The Star" is a reference to the Messiah, and "out of Jacob" is interpreted even by Jewish commentaries as "the son of David" which you quote. Interestingly, many in Matthew's day called Jesus "son of David"(Matt. 9:27,12:23,15:22,20:30,20:31,21:9,21:15) so the teachers of the day must have taught that the Messiah was the "son of David". In the KJV it ...


1

One explanation is that God isn't speaking according to the strict letter of the law. The verse is saying that "He doesn't [want to] see evil in Israel". He looks to ignore it, as it were. This explanation is proffered by the Rashbam, Rashi and Onkelos, who explain that the latter clause of the verse ותרועת מלך בו stems from the word friendship/companionship ...


1

Explanation Number 1: God did not perceive iniquity that is "in Jacob" (people of Israel), for when they violate His words, He is not meticulous with them to meditate upon their falsity and their perversity in that they violate His law. Explanation Number 2: "he" in that verse referes to Balaam. Balaam did not perceive any practice of idolatry or robbery ...


1

The Hebrew Bible relates that COVENANT is the "salvation" which renders "peace." Thus the translators of the Septuagint (LXX) recognized that COVENANT was the "salvation" that brought "peace" to man. The basic Hebrew word for peace is שָׁלוֹם, which is equivalent to the Greek word εἰρήνη; however, when the context is COVENANT in Torah, the Greek word ...


1

The correct translation of the phrase would be "and they did not [prophesy] again." Here's a paper I recently wrote on this. Formatting prevents me from copying-and-pasting the content here on the forum. If the link goes down, please ping me. It is hosted on my website/ host. ...



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