Hot answers tagged nt-use-of-the-ot
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The author of Hebrews is quoting Habakkuk 2:4 from the Septuagint (as opposed to the Hebrew.)
In the Hebrew, this part of the verse would literally translate something like this:
"Behold the scornful; his mind shall not be happy" (Stuart)
(Part of the difficulty in translating Heb. 10:38 is that this is an English translation of a Greek interpretation ...
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INDICATIONS OF LXX PROVERBS 1:7 IN GREEK NEW TESTAMENT(?)
Conlusion:
There are indications (reasons) to believe the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 has an canonical-theological influence, but the specific evidence of a references to this verse in the Gk. New Testament appears to be indeterminate. Nevertheless, we ourselves, may be reminded, wherever we read εὐσέβεια ...
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From these verses it is easily gathered that the Christian view of the Old Testament. The Old Testament is presented as the only foundation of the New Testament. If we were to remove the Old Testament, it would be like removing the walls from a building – the roof with instantly fall to the ground. From the Old Testament scriptures one finds the only logical ...
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I will try to answer your first question, What is his method of exegesis?
If we figure that the Apostle Paul was "educated at the feet of Gamaliel" about Jewish religious law Acts 23:3. He had to use the the Jewish traditions of interpretation· and exegesis that were used at the time, a very common is the Pardes, an acronym formed from the name initials ...
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Martin Luther gives a good explanation in his Commentary on Galatians:
[In Romans 9, Paul] argues that all the children of Abraham are not the children of God. For Abraham had two kinds of children, children born of the promise, like Isaac, and other children born without the promise, as Ishmael. With this argument Paul squelched the proud Jews who ...
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The context is the most important clue to Paul’s line of thinking. He has been telling the Galatians that to turn back to the Law after being set free of it through the grace of Christ is foolish. If the righteous live by faith, those that rely on the law are under condemnation, because man cannot be justified by the law.
With that background his thinking ...
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I see what you are getting at. In the ESV it does seem to speak just the way you say (my expanded paraphrase):
Shall I save these wicked people from Sheol? (Of course not!)
Shall I redeem them from Death (Of course not!)
...But speaking of ‘redeem’ I will insert this confusing prophecy. For although I said ‘Of course not!' I will reject my people ...
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From the clutches of the grave I would ransom them, from death I would redeem them; I will be your words of death; I will decree the
grave upon you. Remorse shall be hidden from My eyes.
-From the Complete Jewish Bible
I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them
from death: O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will ...
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In the case of Moses the manna is clear. In dire straights God provided what was needed to be sustained in a desert without food and water. God preserved them. Therefore ‘man shall not live by bread alone’ means man must rely on God who gives life and sustains life in providing anything we need.
In the case of Jesus, He is referring to the manna as God’s ...
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Both
On the one hand, Matthew seems to link the fulfillment to the journey to Egypt. But the quotation from Hosea makes clear that the journey from Egypt (the Exodus) was what Hosea had in mind. (But see also: Is Hosea 11:1 referencing the initiation of the Exodus or the sojourn in Egypt?) Since Jesus was born in Judea, it would be necessary for him to ...
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I don't think you necessarily have to pick one over the other. It's clear that Herod is a new Pharaoh, killing all the boy babies and that Jesus is a new Moses, escaping the slaughter so he can come back and set His people free. It is also true that He physically went down to Egypt and came back, thus fulfilling the prophecy both ways. Matthew's positioning ...
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The Lord Jesus' use of the text, taken in the wider context of his teachings, is perfectly aligned with the original account of the manna in Exodus 16, and also with Moses' epexegetical comments, when they are understood in their context.
The Giving of the Manna
The people were truly, legitimately hungry.
Yahweh had just delivered them from Egypt, and ...
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I would suggest he is referring to Jeremiah 2:13 & 17:13 and that by doing so, he is making two points:
He is indeed the same as the God of the Scriptures (as he has amply pointed out in previous chapters).
By the new covenant, those who believe in him will have him dwelling not just around but in them.
By the way, it is common for New Testament ...
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