Hot answers tagged nt-use-of-the-ot
17
The author of Hebrews is quoting Habakkuk 2:4 from the Septuagint (as opposed to the Hebrew.)
In the Hebrew, this part of the verse would literally translate something like this:
"Behold the scornful; his mind shall not be happy" (Stuart)
(Part of the difficulty in translating Heb. 10:38 is that this is an English translation of a Greek interpretation ...
9
A few points to make here.
As you noted, the Greek here is a bit slightly ambiguous and could go either way. For the purpose of your question, we are assuming a particular reading, so I will avoid that discussion here.
But let's back up a bit, and see the whole quote:
On the last day of the feast, the great day, Jesus stood up and cried out, “If anyone ...
8
One explanation is that the Hebrew נֵ֫צֶר "branch" (transliterated nazer, netser or so) is related to Nazarene. Isaiah's usage of the word can be seen as prophetic, especially in Isaiah 11:1:
Source / Further reading:
Miller, Fred P. Isaiah's Use of the word "Branch" or Nazarene.
6
There is not Old Testament verse that speaks of living water flowing from within a person. However, we can see this imagery throughout the Old Testament.
Imagery
This passage is a prophecy of Zechariah which is talking about God destroying the enemies of Israel.
Zechariah 14:8 (NASB)
And in that day living waters will flow out of Jerusalem, half ...
6
There were many things that Matthew did not understand about the ministry of Christ until after Jesus death, burial, resurrection, and ascension. The references that the prophets made about the Messiah were likely high on that list. The beauty of most of the references about the messiah is that they were already understood in the historical context which ...
5
Implicit in the question is another question - do the NT authors serve as a model for interpretation of OT texts?
I think the short the answer is 'not necessarily'. Both the OT and NT authors spoke from God by the Holy Spirit - they both spoke into particular contexts, and with their own particular styles, but they did not need to perform exegesis on other ...
4
No, the problem they were asking isn't about polygamy. The problem they were struggling with is regarding adultery.
The problem with adultery is that the woman is married to multiple men:
Matthew 5:32 (NASB)
but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a ...
4
Both Psalm 69 and Psalm 109 are psalms of David. Both are, as well, psalms of vindication. In Psalm 69, David's enemies seek to destroy him without cause (v4), so David prays out against them that God would vindicate him against them. Similarly in Psalm 109, David has been betrayed by his friend(s). Therefore, David prays that God would destroy his enemies.
...
3
INDICATIONS OF LXX PROVERBS 1:7 IN GREEK NEW TESTAMENT(?)
Conlusion:
There are indications (reasons) to believe the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 has an canonical-theological influence, but the specific evidence of a references to this verse in the Gk. New Testament appears to be indeterminate. Nevertheless, we ourselves, may be reminded, wherever we read εὐσέβεια ...
3
From these verses it is easily gathered that the Christian view of the Old Testament. The Old Testament is presented as the only foundation of the New Testament. If we were to remove the Old Testament, it would be like removing the walls from a building – the roof with instantly fall to the ground. From the Old Testament scriptures one finds the only logical ...
3
For what it's worth, Matthew uses the same approach with the Prophets.
For example:
Matthew 1:22-23
All this took place to fulfill what had been spoken by the Lord through the prophet: "Look, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall name him Emmanuel," which means, "God is with us."
pulls a phrase from the middle of
Isaiah ...
3
I will try to answer your first question, What is his method of exegesis?
If we figure that the Apostle Paul was "educated at the feet of Gamaliel" about Jewish religious law Acts 23:3. He had to use the the Jewish traditions of interpretation· and exegesis that were used at the time, a very common is the Pardes, an acronym formed from the name initials ...
2
Martin Luther gives a good explanation in his Commentary on Galatians:
[In Romans 9, Paul] argues that all the children of Abraham are not the children of God. For Abraham had two kinds of children, children born of the promise, like Isaac, and other children born without the promise, as Ishmael. With this argument Paul squelched the proud Jews who ...
2
The context is the most important clue to Paul’s line of thinking. He has been telling the Galatians that to turn back to the Law after being set free of it through the grace of Christ is foolish. If the righteous live by faith, those that rely on the law are under condemnation, because man cannot be justified by the law.
With that background his thinking ...
2
I see what you are getting at. In the ESV it does seem to speak just the way you say (my expanded paraphrase):
Shall I save these wicked people from Sheol? (Of course not!)
Shall I redeem them from Death (Of course not!)
...But speaking of ‘redeem’ I will insert this confusing prophecy. For although I said ‘Of course not!' I will reject my people ...
2
From the clutches of the grave I would ransom them, from death I would redeem them; I will be your words of death; I will decree the
grave upon you. Remorse shall be hidden from My eyes.
-From the Complete Jewish Bible
I will ransom them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them
from death: O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will ...
2
In the case of Moses the manna is clear. In dire straights God provided what was needed to be sustained in a desert without food and water. God preserved them. Therefore ‘man shall not live by bread alone’ means man must rely on God who gives life and sustains life in providing anything we need.
In the case of Jesus, He is referring to the manna as God’s ...
1
The Lord Jesus' use of the text, taken in the wider context of his teachings, is perfectly aligned with the original account of the manna in Exodus 16, and also with Moses' epexegetical comments, when they are understood in their context.
The Giving of the Manna
The people were truly, legitimately hungry.
Yahweh had just delivered them from Egypt, and ...
1
Both
On the one hand, Matthew seems to link the fulfillment to the journey to Egypt. But the quotation from Hosea makes clear that the journey from Egypt (the Exodus) was what Hosea had in mind. (But see also: Is Hosea 11:1 referencing the initiation of the Exodus or the sojourn in Egypt?) Since Jesus was born in Judea, it would be necessary for him to ...
1
I don't think you necessarily have to pick one over the other. It's clear that Herod is a new Pharaoh, killing all the boy babies and that Jesus is a new Moses, escaping the slaughter so he can come back and set His people free. It is also true that He physically went down to Egypt and came back, thus fulfilling the prophecy both ways. Matthew's positioning ...
1
I would suggest he is referring to Jeremiah 2:13 & 17:13 and that by doing so, he is making two points:
He is indeed the same as the God of the Scriptures (as he has amply pointed out in previous chapters).
By the new covenant, those who believe in him will have him dwelling not just around but in them.
By the way, it is common for New Testament ...
1
Pslam 23:5 ..."My cup overflows".
David's cup has been filled and it overflows.
The cup is filled with wine representing grace. He has been forgiven to overflowing. He also forgives his enemies as we have been instructed to do as evidenced by his enemy sitting down at the table to dine with him.
Water is the word of God made up of law and grace. When ...
1
I'm not sure that Paul is referring to Israelites in this verse. If he is referring to gentiles here, the quote from Psalms makes more sense to me. He definitely refers to Jews in vs 19:
Romans 10:19 But I say, surely Israel did not know, did they? First Moses says, "I WILL MAKE YOU JEALOUS BY THAT WHICH IS NOT A NATION, BY A NATION WITHOUT ...
1
"To put it more provocatively, the usage here seems to be eisegesis or, perhaps, prooftexting".
Conclusions like these result from the assumptions brought to the text.
In a literal interpretation it is presumed that Ps 2 speaks of one thing, of which the human author was aware. Therefore, when a NT author finds something more, we presume it is eisegesis, ...
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