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Short answer: no. Long answer: While the Greek lacks the definite article on theos in the clause under discussion, that doesn't mean the English should be translated with an indefinite article. Greek and English do not enjoy a one-to-one relationship between their words. There are times in Greek when the article is present but not translated into English. ...

It does not appear to be a very good translation of this word. 1473 (εγώ) is the personal pronoun, "I", so it tells us that Jesus was talking about Himself. 1510.2.1 (ειμι) is the real core of the question. 1510 is the infinitive "to be, exist". The following numbers (".2.1") tell you more about the nuances of meaning - tense, voice, etc. Some ...

This answer is supplementary to Frank Luke's, and supports it. When someone makes a claim about an ancient language's grammar, it always helps me to believe it and internalize it when I can see parallel usages that illustrate the truth of the claim. Thus, I am glad that Frank Luke offered several examples. I have another which is perhaps even more to the ...

In addition to the points already provided, may I offer a more obvious point based on simple logic? So, the question is, should the latter θεός in John 1:1 be translated into English as "God" or "a god"? In John 1:3, it is written that «πάντα δι᾽ αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο καὶ χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἕν ὃ γέγονεν», that is, "All things were made by him, and not one ...