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40

Short answer: no. Long answer: While the Greek lacks the definite article on theos in the clause under discussion, that doesn't mean the English should be translated with an indefinite article. Greek and English do not enjoy a one-to-one relationship between their words. There are times in Greek when the article is present but not translated into English. ...


20

This answer is supplementary to Frank Luke's, and supports it. When someone makes a claim about an ancient language's grammar, it always helps me to believe it and internalize it when I can see parallel usages that illustrate the truth of the claim. Thus, I am glad that Frank Luke offered several examples. I have another which is perhaps even more to the ...


20

It does not appear to be a very good translation of this word. 1473 (εγώ) is the personal pronoun, "I", so it tells us that Jesus was talking about Himself. 1510.2.1 (ειμι) is the real core of the question. 1510 is the infinitive "to be, exist". The following numbers (".2.1") tell you more about the nuances of meaning - tense, voice, etc. Some ...


16

In addition to the points already provided, may I offer a more obvious point based on simple logic? So, the question is, should the latter θεός in John 1:1 be translated into English as "God" or "a god"? In John 1:3, it is written that «πάντα δι᾽ αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο καὶ χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἕν ὃ γέγονεν», that is, "All things were made by him, and not one ...


8

The meaning of the English article In English the article ("the") is used to make a word definite. This is how you would demand an indefinite pizza: Bring me a pizza This is how you would demand a definite pizza: Bring me the pizza The meaning of the Greek article The meaning of the Greek article is slightly different, which can make it ...


4

The question asks for a positive justification for the use of that specific Latin-alphabet rendering. I don't see where a text-based justification is going to come from. That rendering is the result of a misunderstanding. In traditional Jewish pointed orthography, the four consonants of the name are written with those vowels -- not because anyone anywhere in ...


4

I’ve finally dug out my copy of the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures — with references (1984 edition, which as far as I know is still the latest). It has a simple footnote on this phrase, referring the reader to Appendix 6F: “Jesus — In Existence Before Abraham”. The appendix article begins with a series of quotes, which I here present: From ...


4

The understanding of the meaning of the word name (hebr. shem / gr. onoma) in general tends to be too narrow in the context of the modern use. In the ancient languages the word name meant the person. The name was semantically not a referent, at least not primarily. Therefore the Name of YHWH is not the Tetragrammaton (neither it is Jehovah, nor Jahweh). ...


3

Short Answer: Yes. I am sure that this is not the answer that most of us want to hear. From a purely grammatical perspective, before claiming that Jehovah’s Witnesses added “a God”, see why many Trinitarian Bible translations have translated John 1:1 as “a God”. The NWT was published in 1951 and I am quoting from the appendix of the New World Translation ...


3

The translation of 'THEOS' as 'a god' is not a good choice. On the other side, however, the widely accepted decision not to make any distinction between articulated 'HO THEOS' and unarticulated 'THEOS' apparent in this context is not very good either because it seems not to represent the gospel writer's intention adequately. The Word, HO LOGOS, has ...


3

In the Hebrew Scriptures The Tetragrammaton (four-letter name of God) appears multiple times in the Hebrew Scriptures. Many translations render this as LORD, following the Jewish practice of not pronouncing the Divine Name (though the Jews do write the name in their scriptures). The Jerusalem Bible renders the name as Yahweh, which is a scholarly “best ...


2

The Greek word is ὀλίγαι, the nominative case, plural number, feminine gender declension of the adjective ὀλίγος. (It is declined in the feminine gender because it modifies the noun ψυχαί which is naturally declined in the feminine gender.) It is translated as "few" 14 times in the King James Version. BDAG (p. 703) defines it as, ὀλίγος, η, ον ...


2

I don't think it is a html question! Genesis is built up by the 'toledot' form. With Gen. 37:2 starts the toledot of Jacob. So, I think Gen 37:1 belongs to the toledot of Esau, Gen. 36. I'm studying the life and significance of Esau in Scripture and I discovered that Gen. 36 tells the history of the natural human (in contrast to the spiritual human). The end ...


2

There are two important textual variants in Acts 10:28, which shed light on how to translate it. Neither of these variants involves the word "son." Nonetheless, the original Greek is ambiguous and can be reasonably translated either as "his own blood" or "the blood of his own Son." First let me explain the textual variants (explained here, here, and ...



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