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21

My impression is that Aramaic primacy is not taken very seriously among experts, so there's not much in the way of scholarly works debunking it. (This is not unusual, compare to say mythicism or the theory that Jesus and Mary Magdaline were married, neither of which had scholarly debunkings until recently.) So rather than citing experts, I'm just going to ...


16

To answer your first question, we should not simply accept Sinaiticus as the source of the truth for the New Testament. It has great weight in debates from its age, but age is not the final arbiter in textual considerations. Codex Sinaiticus was made in the 4th century on parchment using capital letters (a manuscript in all capitals is called an "uncial"). ...


14

Noah has given an excellent answer, but I would like to give other issues with Aramaic primacy. There are NT fragments in Greek that are older than anything in Aramaic. Very early fragments. The John Rylands fragment of John's Gospel, P52 (AD ~125), is older by centuries than any copy of the Peshitta that has survived, and even older than the work in the ...


14

This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. The NA28 includes the text similar to the GNT you quote: . . . τοῦτο τὸ γένος ἐν οὐδενὶ δύναται ἐξελθεῖν εἰ μὴ ἐν προσευχῇ (NA28) . . . this kind cannot be driven out by anything but prayer (ESV) The apparatus notes the variant you ask about (the ...


12

Occurrences in the New Testament Corpus ᾅδης (Hades) appears 10 times in the New Testament,1 and the context of each occurrence indicates that it is the abode of the dead. One particular account references the idiomatic idea of 'Abraham's bosom'2 and includes the idea of a division within Hades where some are comforted and others are tormented in fire, ...


12

The only New Testament book to use the name is Revelation, four times in chapter 19, embedded in the Greek word ἁλληλουϊά (hallelouia). This is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew phrase הַֽלְלוּ־יָֽהּ (halelu-Yah). 'Yah' is the abbreviated form of Yahweh, which is sometimes also used in the Hebrew scriptures (mostly in the Psalms, but a few times in ...


10

In Matt. 10:34, it is written, 34 Do not think that I came to send peace on the earth. I did not come to send peace, but rather, a sword! ΛΔʹ μὴ νομίσητε ὅτι ἦλθον βαλεῖν εἰρήνην ἐπὶ τὴν γῆν οὐκ ἦλθον βαλεῖν εἰρήνην ἀλλὰ μάχαιραν TR, 1550 The “sword” (μάχαιρα) represents “division” (διαμερισμός), and this is evident when we examine the synoptic ...


10

A Plausible Majority Text Argument Susan's answer has correctly given the direct answer to your question when she states: This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. That is the simple fact. Which manuscript tradition the particular translation in question is following determines the omission or ...


9

I. Howard Marshall gives a concise statement of the options for harmonization in his commentary: It is quite possible that Matthew or Luke is simply reporting what was commonly said in Jerusalem, and that we are not meant to harmonize the two accounts. If we do try to harmonzie (sic) them, the following possibilities arise: (1). Judas hanged himself (...


9

Another addendum to Susan's fine answer and ScottS's alternative account. All manuscripts are not the same, which is why the text critic's job is not simply that of counting noses. We have two possible scenarios an original shorter reading, which was subsequently expanded in transmission by the addition of "+ and fasting" after "prayer"; an original ...


8

Short Answer: In context "you are to be perfect" means "you are to love as God loves: without partiality" Justification First, consider the immediate context: You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall love your neighbor and hate your enemy.’ But I say to you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, so that you may be sons of your ...


8

It seems that most of the commentaries take "at home" to mean Peter's home from Mark 1:29, which seems to have functioned as the base for Jesus' ministry in Capernaum. While both follow this majority opinion, J. Marcus allows that "en oikō̧" could simply mean "in a house" and R. Stein states the possibility that it is Jesus' own home. However, given that the ...


7

Typically the word "righteous" or "just" are simply alternative translations of the same word, "dikaios" (δικαιος and cognate verbs and such). There is simply no difference. I'll go ahead and add an analogous example that people also often confuse, and that is the difference between "faith" and "belief". In Greek they are translations of the same root. In ...


7

In the preceding and following verses, Paul talks about something 'written with ink', '[written] on tablets of stone', 'the letter', 'the ministry of death, carved on tablets of stone', 'the ministry of condemnation', and 'the old covenant / Moses' which has a 'veil'. These are all in contrast to '[written] with the spirit of the living God', '[written] on ...


7

Contemporary Jewish Apocalypses 2 Esdras is a Jewish apocalypse with later Christian additions. One chapter, written by the original Jewish author, has the following: In the thirtieth year after the destruction of the city, I was in Babylon — I, Salathiel, who am also called Ezra. I was troubled as I lay on my bed, and my thoughts welled up in my ...


6

As GalacticCowboy's answer suggests, the phrase seems to be related to commissioning elders. Given that Paul was a student of Gamaliel (Acts 22) and the author of Hebrews seems deeply knowledgeable about Jewish sacrificial rites and uses arguments similar to Paul's in Galatians, it seems possible that both are referencing the rabbinic practice of semikhah ...


6

Although Frank has a great answer above, I thought I'd add a couple of things. The question of the proximity of a text to the original depends on a number of factors, age being an important one, but certainly not the only one. To think about this, it is necessary to think about the process of manuscript manufacture in the early years of the church. ...


6

The early christians made a tradition out of meeting on "the first day of the week", which is Sunday, because Saturday is the last day of the week (you can compare this to an American calendar which start the week on a Sunday and ends it on a Saturday.) Acts 20:7: On the first day of the week we came together to break bread. Paul spoke to the people ...


6

The oldest and most studied claim of this sort is that there was an Aramaic gospel which served as a source for the synoptics. In particular, many early church fathers believed that the original version of Matthew was written in Aramaic based in part on the writings of Papias who said: "For Matthew composed the logia [sayings] in Hebrew style; but each ...


6

Yes. Titus 1:12: One of Crete’s own prophets has said it: ‘Cretans are always liars, evil brutes, lazy gluttons.’ The footnote in the NIV says, "From the Cretan philosopher Epimenides". Researching Epimenides led me to Non-canonical books referenced in the Bible which also mentions 1 Corinthians 15:33: Do not be misled: ‘Bad company corrupts good ...


6

Restricting oneself to the most literal of meanings is often wrong in any language. We cannot simply say "what does this word mean at its root?" We must go on to ask "how was this word used in this verse?" That the preferred form for a Roman cross was indeed a vertical stake with a crosspiece is well established in history. Stauros could mean "cross" more ...


6

When comparing John 20:30-31 to other early Christian texts, it appears 'Christ' and 'son of God' (and 'Lord') were understood as synonyms when used for Jesus. The two terms appear in conjunction somewhat regularly1, a few you have already noted in a comment above. The reason for why the two phrases are so often used in relation to each other probably ...


6

I am an amateur at this, but I think that 2 Samuel 23 gives us a big clue as to how to interpret Jesus' remarks. Jesus's language appears to be the same language used by David who refused to drink of the water that the soldiers brought him because they had risked their lives to bring it to him, and what they brought to David was not worth them losing their ...


6

The four instances of this clause in John 6 are: 6:39 (NET) — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the last day." 6:40 (NET) — "For this is the will of my Father—for everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him to have eternal life, and I will ...


6

As a supplement to Frank Luke's answer, I add another way of thinking about it. The construction in English is very similar to the Greek: not X, but [instead] Y. (Wallace calls ἀλλὰ here a contrastive conjunction.1) For example, if I say "Put not your hand into boiling water, but use a spoon." The contrast is between: X= put your hand into boiling ...


6

Paul state after his conversion that he is still Pharisee on two occasions Acts 23:6 Now when Paul perceived that one part were Sadducees and the other Pharisees, he cried out in the council, “Brothers, I am a Pharisee, a son of Pharisees. It is with respect to the hope and the resurrection of the dead that I am on trial.” Phil 3:5 ...


5

Check out James R. Edwards' book, The Hebrew Gospel and the Development of the Synoptic Tradition. From my review in the Stone-Campbell Journal, 14:2 Fall, 2011: This volume presents an older idea concerning the formation of the Synoptic Gospels, while connecting the data in a new way. The current volume resurrects an older idea concerning the formation ...


5

INDICATIONS OF LXX PROVERBS 1:7 IN GREEK NEW TESTAMENT(?) Conlusion: There are indications (reasons) to believe the LXX of Proverbs 1:7 has an canonical-theological influence, but the specific evidence of a references to this verse in the Gk. New Testament appears to be indeterminate. Nevertheless, we ourselves, may be reminded, wherever we read εὐσέβεια ...



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