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I am not sure whether this is a question about English, or about Christian doctrine. If it is about English, then I can only repeat what others have said: "In the name of Jim, and John, and Sarah" means in the name of each one of the three; it does not imply that they all shared the same name. If you asking about doctrine, I need to say that there is no ...


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No, it does not mean that they all share the same name. It does not even mean that any of them has a name at all. "In the name of" is a fixed phrase. It is a single unit with a fixed meaning, "with appeal to" or "by the authority of" and that's all there is to it. You are free to replace it, as a whole, with either of these paraphrases to see that ...


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I think the simple reason for that this plural noun is translated into other languages as a singular noun is because it's being used with a singular verb. This would be comparable to saying "Ants is here to stay" instead of "Ants are here to stay". It turns this plural word ("ants") into a proper noun. In the Hebrew Bible Elohim, when meaning the God of ...



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