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1. Question Restatement: In Genesis 22:14 - the Hebrew text uses a the word, "יראה" - literally from, "See", or "Appear" - So, is it valid to translate this as "Provide", in this one case? Genesis 22:14 - And Abraham called the name of that place: "the Lord Will Provide / יראה" ... Or, Alternatively - ... called ... that place: "the Lord Will ...


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Hebrews 1:8 is continued in verse 9 which references a second god and one god is the God of the other who rewards the good service of the other with a blessing: Heb 1:9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions." In these two ways it is made clear that ...


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Look, El Sha and ddai (I'm jewish I can't put the holy name down here in one word) is actually a hebrew acronym for Shin(ש) Shomer ‎Dalet(ד) Delasot Yod(י)‎ Yisrael which means protector/keeper guardian of Israel (The Jews). In all Shin, Dalet and Yod(hebrew letters) make up the hebrew word Sha and ddai.This name is a very holy sacred name of God in ...


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The Secularization (and Yahwist Rebranding) of the House of El The purpose of translation is to render into English the intended meaning of the biblical writers. While the ancient etymology of Hebrew words is sometimes interesting, it isn’t always helpful to this task. For example, though Gen.28 tells a story of Jacob’s naming of Bethel, the toponym ...


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The Hebrew text of Gen. 31:13 states, יג אָנֹכִי הָאֵל בֵּית אֵל אֲשֶׁר מָשַׁחְתָּ שָּׁם מַצֵּבָה אֲשֶׁר נָדַרְתָּ לִּי שָׁם נֶדֶר עַתָּה קוּם צֵא מִן הָאָרֶץ הַזֹּאת וְשׁוּב אֶל אֶרֶץ מוֹלַדְתֶּךָ The phrase in question is הָאֵל בֵּית אֵל. As the original question mentioned, most English translations translate this phrase into English as "the God of ...


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So the question is "Vawter correct?" is perhaps difficult because all I do not have his book and can neither verify Geir's attribution to him, nor determine what context it is in. But as I see it this question can be answered in parts1) What does the Masoretic Text say. 2) What do the Septuagint say. 3) Are there text critical issues 4) What impact does this ...


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No, Vawter is not correct. The Hebrew does likely have two absolute Hebrew word forms next to one another in the construction of הָאֵל֙ בֵּֽית־אֵ֔ל ("the God Bethel"), which can mean an appositional relation ("the God, i.e., Bethel), whereas strictly speaking, "God of Bethel" would have God in a construct form. But Vawter and other such solutions posing ...


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Since the passage in question is a spurious addition by Trinitarians it is irrelevant. http://www.biblicalunitarian.com/verses/matthew-28-19 It should be noted that while Trinitarian translators obscure the fact, in the Greek there is no fixed formula of "the Holy Spirit": Matt 12:31 ...του πνευματος... Mark 3:29 ...τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον... Luke 4:1 ...



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