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17

This apparent contradiction can be resolved without the documentary hypothesis. As Bruce Alderman pointed out, Gen 17 is considered an E passage, yet it uses YHWH in the very first verse. Similarly, there are J passages that use Elohim (the very first J passage actually uses YHWH-Elohim). There are certain patterns in Hebrew thought for when one name ...


16

Answer As pointed out in the original question, the verb or adjective actually tells the reader if a noun should be understood as singular or plural, regardless of what form the word actually takes. So even though 'elohim is technically the plural form of the noun, because the verbs or adjectives attached to that noun are consistently in the singular, the ...


14

No. The tetragrammaton was not used in Jesus' time. Faithful Jews would avoid saying it so as to not transgress the third commandment. The most common circumlocution was "Lord" (Andonai in Hebrew or Kurios in Greek), though he might also be referred to simply as "Heaven." In answer to Jesus using El from the cross. El is the common word for God from all ...


12

The only New Testament book to use the name is Revelation, four times in chapter 19, embedded in the Greek word ἁλληλουϊά (hallelouia). This is the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew phrase הַֽלְלוּ־יָֽהּ (halelu-Yah). 'Yah' is the abbreviated form of Yahweh, which is sometimes also used in the Hebrew scriptures (mostly in the Psalms, but a few times in ...


11

No, the Tetragrammaton יהוה is never transliterated into the Greek Septuagint (LXX). Sometimes יהוה is not translated into the LXX (cp. Gen. 2:7 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος (cp. Gen. 4:3 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as ὁ θεὸς (cp. Gen. 4:1 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος ὁ θεὸς (cp. ...


11

There are several options for the etymology of Shaddai. My opinion is to take it from a word for "mountain." I can't see how the wikisource gets to the translation it does. That certainly varies from the BHS. I think what they are doing is taking the et before shaddai as the mark of the accusative (thus making shaddai the direct object of the verb). ...


10

These variations in the divine name are not so much about different languages, but different phases of Hebrew. See the YHWH article by Freedman, O'Connor & Ringgren in Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, (Eerdmans, 1986), vol. 5, pp. 500-521. The "contracted" forms are usually used in theophoric names: at the beginning: yəhô- as in ...


10

The Tetragram in Hebrew is a proper name, and names do not have articles in Hebrew any more than they do in English. The article "the" arises in OP's KJV example because of the convention (beginning as early as the Septuagint) of representing the divine name by the word "Lord", which then has the knock on effect of requiring an article in English usage. ...


9

The Hebrew language has numerous words that are grammatically plural but understood as singular. For example, the word חיים (chaim), meaning "life." See "The Various Uses of the Plural Form" in Gesenius' Grammar: http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Gesenius%27_Hebrew_Grammar/124


9

In addition Frank Luke's excellent answer, I've found some additional material that might be of interest. Duane A. Garrett (coauthor of A Modern Grammar for Biblical Hebrew) writes on Exodus 6:2c-3: But the Hebrew text, as Francis I. Andersen points out, contains a case of noncontiguous parallelism that translators have not recognized: “I am ...


9

Short answer Why are you expecting Jesus to have said something He did not say? Why He did not add "ὁ ὤν" is best answered "He did not want to say it." Questions of "motive" (why) are often very hard to answer firmly and purely from the text. Longer Answer Based in Exegesis Analysis So the core statement is this (my translation and notes): ...


8

Jesus spoke primarily Aramaic followed by Hebrew and Greek. Since most of the new testament was written in greek, you will probably never find it recorded that Jesus said "YHWH" in scriptures. This doesn't mean he didn't say it, it's just a translation thing. Furthermore, it was Hebrew tradition to interpose the name Adonai inside of "YHWH" which is ...


7

The verb נֹודַעְתִּי (noda'ti) is exceptionally rare. It is conjugated in binyan Nif'al, 1st person, singular number. It only occurs twice in scripture, the other instance being in Eze. 20:9 which actually has a similar context. In Eze. 20:9, it is written, And I did for the sake of My name, in order to prevent it from being dishonored in the eyes of ...


7

Background The NET Bible has a useful translator's note on the introduction of the name in Exodus 3:14: The verb form used here is אֶהְיֶה (’ehyeh), the Qal imperfect, first person common singular, of the verb הָיָה (haya, “to be”). It forms an excellent paronomasia with the name. So when God used the verb to express his name, he used this form saying, ...


7

No, it does not mean that they all share the same name. It does not even mean that any of them has a name at all. "In the name of" is a fixed phrase. It is a single unit with a fixed meaning, "with appeal to" or "by the authority of" and that's all there is to it. You are free to replace it, as a whole, with either of these paraphrases to see that ...


7

Does Song of Songs 8:6 contain a reference to YHWH? Yes ... and no. "Yes", there is a use of the short form of the divine name, found suffixed to the word of Song 8:6, שַׁלְהֶבֶתְיָה šalhebetyāh, combining the rare word for "flame", שַׁלְהֶבֶת šalhebet (on this analysis, found only here and in Job 15:30 and Ezekiel 21:3) with the final -yah representing ...


6

It's capitalized in English by tradition, but there's really no reason to capitalize it. The earliest Greek manuscripts were written in all uncials or majuscular letters, without any intervening spaces between letters. For example, the following is John 1:1 as written in the Codex Sinaiticus: The Hebrew language, both ancient and modern, also lacked ...


5

While @H3br3wHamm3r81 has provided a fine answer to this question, there is one more wrinkle that can be added for the sake of completeness. We know of a tradition of supplying the Tetragram (Y-H-W-H), HaShem, the name of God, in special characters from the Dead Sea Scrolls. One of the clearest places to see this is in the Psalms scroll from Cave 11: Or, ...


5

The understanding of the meaning of the word name (hebr. shem / gr. onoma) in general tends to be too narrow in the context of the modern use. In the ancient languages the word name meant the person. The name was semantically not a referent, at least not primarily. Therefore the Name of YHWH is not the Tetragrammaton (neither it is Jehovah, nor Jahweh). ...


4

Hannes, I am sorry this took so long for me to look into. While the Septuagint does use "your God," it is the only version I have found that does. Jerome's Vulgate uses "Ego Deus omnipotens" (I am God omnipotent). Likewise, of the three Targums I consulted, two had "God almighty" (Targum Pseudo Jonathan and the other is simply marked as Targumin from Hebrew ...


4

According to F.F. Bruce's Israel and the Nations (p 108): "the God of Heaven" is a title by which Yahweh is commonly designated under the Persian regime The phrase is not just used in Daniel, but also used in Ezra 7:12 where Ezra is designated "scribe of the law of the God of heaven" in Artaxerxe's letter to Ezra. It is used throughout the book of ...


4

The NWT translation rests on two quirks of Greek. Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ...(SBLGNT) the throne of you the God into the age of the age, ...(my nearly word-for-word translation) First, the nominative case and the vocative case often share the same forms. So the original passage has two occurrences of the word form "ὁ" ("the") ...


4

The Tetragrammaton, or "YHWH" which is often pronounced "Yahweh" or "Jehovah", is the proper name of the God of the Bible. The word "Elohim" or any variation thereof ("El", "Eloh", "Elah".. etc) is a title which means simply "God" or more precisely, "Mighty Ones" (in the case of "Elohim", or in the singular for all the others) and not a proper name. Just as ...


4

Verse 15:2 says: וַיֹּאמֶר אַבְרָם אֲדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה מַה תִּתֶּן לִי וְאָנֹכִי הוֹלֵךְ עֲרִירִי וּבֶן מֶשֶׁק בֵּיתִי הוּא דַּמֶּשֶׂק אֱלִיעֶזֶר The phrase at issue here is "אַדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה" -- the word on the right being "Adonai" which literally means "my lords" (note plural), but in context is a reference to God. The word to the left is the Divine ...


4

According to Ibn Ezra it means a flame of God fire of a great flame: coals of a strong fire that comes from the force of the flame of Gehinnom. The cantillation symbol of the zakef gadol, which punctuates רִשְּׁפֵּי (coals of) teaches us about the word אֵשּׁ (fire) that it is connected to שַּׁלְהֶבֶתיָהּ, meaning fire of a great flame, [or a flame of ...


4

Gesenius lexicon for Strong's 3050 has a slightly expanded explanation. There either יַהֲַוֹה or יַהְַוֶה is allowed to be an earlier pronounciation of YHWH, and the form Yah is explained by apocope to יָהוּ and then by omission of the unaccented וּ to the final יָהּ. As a further evidence, Gesenius points that "these forms are used promiscuously" (sic) at ...


4

Great references @David, but after the exile there appears to be a linguistic aspect to the variations. We can begin by separating the historical phases—pre-exilic, exilic, and post-exilic periods. Many have puzzled over all the variations of the name, because if derived from it they should somehow “resemble” the full name itself (and only one does this—the ...


4

Exo 3:14 and 15 has two verbal forms of the same stem (hwh). The answer in 3:14 is explanatory, but in 3:15 it is literal—YHWH is given as the name. Moses asked about the name and the explanatory reply was “אֶהְיֶה אֲשֶׁר אֶהְיֶה” (ʾehyeh ʾăšer ʾehyeh)—I am that I am or I will be what I will be (S. R. Driver considers it idem per idem construction as in Exo ...



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