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15

This apparent contradiction can be resolved without the documentary hypothesis. As Bruce Alderman pointed out, Gen 17 is considered an E passage, yet it uses YHWH in the very first verse. Similarly, there are J passages that use Elohim (the very first J passage actually uses YHWH-Elohim). There are certain patterns in Hebrew thought for when one name ...


14

Answer As pointed out in the original question, the verb or adjective actually tells the reader if a noun should be understood as singular or plural, regardless of what form the word actually takes. So even though 'elohim is technically the plural form of the noun, because the verbs or adjectives attached to that noun are consistently in the singular, the ...


11

The only New Testament book to use the name is the Revelation. Four times in chapter 19, we find the word αλληλουια, which is the Greek translation of 'hallelu Yah' ('praise Yah'). The abbreviated form of YHWH, sometimes also used in the Hebrew scriptures, but the name nonetheless. Otherwise the New Testament authors follow the traditional custom of ...


10

There are several options for the etymology of Shaddai. My opinion is to take it from a word for "mountain." I can't see how the wikisource gets to the translation it does. That certainly varies from the BHS. I think what they are doing is taking the et before shaddai as the mark of the accusative (thus making shaddai the direct object of the verb). ...


9

Short answer Why are you expecting Jesus to have said something He did not say? Why He did not add "ὁ ὤν" is best answered "He did not want to say it." Questions of "motive" (why) are often very hard to answer firmly and purely from the text. Longer Answer Based in Exegesis Analysis So the core statement is this (my translation and notes): ...


7

In addition Frank Luke's excellent answer, I've found some additional material that might be of interest. Duane A. Garrett (coauthor of A Modern Grammar for Biblical Hebrew) writes on Exodus 6:2c-3: But the Hebrew text, as Francis I. Andersen points out, contains a case of noncontiguous parallelism that translators have not recognized: “I am ...


7

Background The NET Bible has a useful translator's note on the introduction of the name in Exodus 3:14: The verb form used here is אֶהְיֶה (’ehyeh), the Qal imperfect, first person common singular, of the verb הָיָה (haya, “to be”). It forms an excellent paronomasia with the name. So when God used the verb to express his name, he used this form saying, ...


7

The Hebrew language has numerous words that are grammatically plural but understood as singular. For example, the word חיים (chaim), meaning "life." See "The Various Uses of the Plural Form" in Gesenius' Grammar: http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Gesenius%27_Hebrew_Grammar/124


6

No, it does not mean that they all share the same name. It does not even mean that any of them has a name at all. "In the name of" is a fixed phrase. It is a single unit with a fixed meaning, "with appeal to" or "by the authority of" and that's all there is to it. You are free to replace it, as a whole, with either of these paraphrases to see that ...


5

The verb נֹודַעְתִּי (noda'ti) is exceptionally rare. It is conjugated in binyan Nif'al, 1st person, singular number. It only occurs twice in scripture, the other instance being in Eze. 20:9 which actually has a similar context. In Eze. 20:9, it is written, And I did for the sake of My name, in order to prevent it from being dishonored in the eyes of ...


5

No, the Tetragrammaton יהוה is never transliterated into the Greek Septuagint (LXX). Sometimes יהוה is not translated into the LXX (cp. Gen. 2:7 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος (cp. Gen. 4:3 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as ὁ θεὸς (cp. Gen. 4:1 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος ὁ θεὸς (cp. ...


4

According to F.F. Bruce's Israel and the Nations (p 108): "the God of Heaven" is a title by which Yahweh is commonly designated under the Persian regime The phrase is not just used in Daniel, but also used in Ezra 7:12 where Ezra is designated "scribe of the law of the God of heaven" in Artaxerxe's letter to Ezra. It is used throughout the book of ...


4

Verse 15:2 says: וַיֹּאמֶר אַבְרָם אֲדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה מַה תִּתֶּן לִי וְאָנֹכִי הוֹלֵךְ עֲרִירִי וּבֶן מֶשֶׁק בֵּיתִי הוּא דַּמֶּשֶׂק אֱלִיעֶזֶר The phrase at issue here is "אַדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה" -- the word on the right being "Adonai" which literally means "my lords" (note plural), but in context is a reference to God. The word to the left is the Divine ...


3

The Tetragrammaton, or "YHWH" which is often pronounced "Yahweh" or "Jehovah", is the proper name of the God of the Bible. The word "Elohim" or any variation thereof ("El", "Eloh", "Elah".. etc) is a title which means simply "God" or more precisely, "Mighty Ones" (in the case of "Elohim", or in the singular for all the others) and not a proper name. Just as ...


3

Often, but not always, a title given to and associated with God will be written as two words in Hebrew. They might separate the words with a makkeph, which looks like a dash but is at the top of the line instead of the middle (technically, this makes the words one in Hebrew and shifts the accent). If there is no makkeph, the words will be written as two ...


3

Hannes, I am sorry this took so long for me to look into. While the Septuagint does use "your God," it is the only version I have found that does. Jerome's Vulgate uses "Ego Deus omnipotens" (I am God omnipotent). Likewise, of the three Targums I consulted, two had "God almighty" (Targum Pseudo Jonathan and the other is simply marked as Targumin from Hebrew ...


3

"The name of YHVH comes from afar" seems puzzling; YHVH may come from afar, but what does it mean for his name to do so? Rashi, the medieval compiler of rabbinic tradition, writes the following: the Name of the Lord: His might, which will be for Him as a name, viz., what He will do to Sennacherib. He does not give a source, but this interpretation is ...


3

It is not plain to me that ehyeh and Yahweh are related at all.The footnote in the NIV says something like "the two words sound the same and can be derived from each other", which always struck me as a rather dishonest comment. They certainly don't sound alike, regardless of the vocalization you choose for the tetragrammaton, and it is far from obvious what ...


3

Abraham did receive a son at the old age of Sarah and his. He as good as sacrificed him and received him back. He did not enter into God's rest as surely as the Israelites didn't who died in the wilderness and their children didn't who were lead into the land by Joshua. I can not favour the thought that those Israelites should have experienced God ...


2

Rav Hannan Porat Z"L explained the name "El Shadday" as stemming from "Shad", meaning "breast", a symbol of fertility. See here, in Hebrew; number #4: http://tora.us.fm/tnk1/kma/qjrim1/jdy1.html


2

The point of the context is that God's name will be glorified by Israel being blessed, and by Jerusalem being blessed. As such, I don't think it is necessary to see God's name in "Jerusalem". What is translated "by" in "by thy name" is actually the two prepositions governing "Jerusalem" and "Israel" - the Hebrew preposition "al". It usually means ...


2

The Hebrew text of Gen. 15:2 states, וַיֹּאמֶר אַבְרָם אֲדֹנָי יֱהוִה מַה־תִּתֶּן־לִי וְאָנֹכִי הוֹלֵךְ עֲרִירִי וּבֶן־מֶשֶׁק בֵּיתִי הוּא דַּמֶּשֶׂק אֱלִיעֶזֶר You stated, It is my understanding that this word is an emphatic of Adon, which means Father. The Hebrew word אָדוֹן (adon) does not mean "father," but "master," "lord." For example, ...


2

I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ ...


2

Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


1

I think the simple reason for that this plural noun is translated into other languages as a singular noun is because it's being used with a singular verb. This would be comparable to saying "Ants is here to stay" instead of "Ants are here to stay". It turns this plural word ("ants") into a proper noun. In the Hebrew Bible Elohim, when meaning the God of ...


1

The significance of the various uses of the names Yahweh and Elohim can be better understood when we realise that often when the author uses the name Yahweh, the focus is on Judah, and whenever he uses the name Elohim, the focus tends to be on the northern kingdom of Israel. When the author uses the name Yahweh, he is speaking of an anthropomorphic God with ...


1

A rose by any other name. The notion isn't that it's in the name itself, but rather that there be an association made. Contextually, Daniel is calling for God's mercy on Jerusalem and His people, Israel, who are in ruin. Daniel's petition is that God be merciful not because Israel deserves it, but because God's name (i.e. reputation, etc.) is associated ...



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