Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

16

This apparent contradiction can be resolved without the documentary hypothesis. As Bruce Alderman pointed out, Gen 17 is considered an E passage, yet it uses YHWH in the very first verse. Similarly, there are J passages that use Elohim (the very first J passage actually uses YHWH-Elohim). There are certain patterns in Hebrew thought for when one name ...


16

Answer As pointed out in the original question, the verb or adjective actually tells the reader if a noun should be understood as singular or plural, regardless of what form the word actually takes. So even though 'elohim is technically the plural form of the noun, because the verbs or adjectives attached to that noun are consistently in the singular, the ...


11

The only New Testament book to use the name is the Revelation. Four times in chapter 19, we find the word αλληλουια, which is the Greek translation of 'hallelu Yah' ('praise Yah'). The abbreviated form of YHWH, sometimes also used in the Hebrew scriptures, but the name nonetheless. Otherwise the New Testament authors follow the traditional custom of ...


10

No, the Tetragrammaton יהוה is never transliterated into the Greek Septuagint (LXX). Sometimes יהוה is not translated into the LXX (cp. Gen. 2:7 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος (cp. Gen. 4:3 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as ὁ θεὸς (cp. Gen. 4:1 LXX). Sometimes יהוה is translated into the LXX as κύριος ὁ θεὸς (cp. ...


10

There are several options for the etymology of Shaddai. My opinion is to take it from a word for "mountain." I can't see how the wikisource gets to the translation it does. That certainly varies from the BHS. I think what they are doing is taking the et before shaddai as the mark of the accusative (thus making shaddai the direct object of the verb). ...


9

Short answer Why are you expecting Jesus to have said something He did not say? Why He did not add "ὁ ὤν" is best answered "He did not want to say it." Questions of "motive" (why) are often very hard to answer firmly and purely from the text. Longer Answer Based in Exegesis Analysis So the core statement is this (my translation and notes): ...


9

The Hebrew language has numerous words that are grammatically plural but understood as singular. For example, the word חיים (chaim), meaning "life." See "The Various Uses of the Plural Form" in Gesenius' Grammar: http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Gesenius%27_Hebrew_Grammar/124


9

No. The tetragrammaton was not used in Jesus' time. Faithful Jews would avoid saying it so as to not transgress the third commandment. The most common circumlocution was "Lord" (Andonai in Hebrew or Kurios in Greek), though he might also be referred to simply as "Heaven." In answer to Jesus using El from the cross. El is the common word for God from all ...


7

In addition Frank Luke's excellent answer, I've found some additional material that might be of interest. Duane A. Garrett (coauthor of A Modern Grammar for Biblical Hebrew) writes on Exodus 6:2c-3: But the Hebrew text, as Francis I. Andersen points out, contains a case of noncontiguous parallelism that translators have not recognized: “I am ...


7

Background The NET Bible has a useful translator's note on the introduction of the name in Exodus 3:14: The verb form used here is אֶהְיֶה (’ehyeh), the Qal imperfect, first person common singular, of the verb הָיָה (haya, “to be”). It forms an excellent paronomasia with the name. So when God used the verb to express his name, he used this form saying, ...


7

These variations in the divine name are not so much about different languages, but different phases of Hebrew. See the YHWH article by Freedman, O'Connor & Ringgren in Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, (Eerdmans, 1986), vol. 5, pp. 500-521. The "contracted" forms are usually used in theophoric names: at the beginning: yəhô- as in ...


6

No, it does not mean that they all share the same name. It does not even mean that any of them has a name at all. "In the name of" is a fixed phrase. It is a single unit with a fixed meaning, "with appeal to" or "by the authority of" and that's all there is to it. You are free to replace it, as a whole, with either of these paraphrases to see that ...


6

Jesus spoke primarily Aramaic followed by Hebrew and Greek. Since most of the new testament was written in greek, you will probably never find it recorded that Jesus said "YHWH" in scriptures. This doesn't mean he didn't say it, it's just a translation thing. Furthermore, it was Hebrew tradition to interpose the name Adonai inside of "YHWH" which is ...


5

The verb נֹודַעְתִּי (noda'ti) is exceptionally rare. It is conjugated in binyan Nif'al, 1st person, singular number. It only occurs twice in scripture, the other instance being in Eze. 20:9 which actually has a similar context. In Eze. 20:9, it is written, And I did for the sake of My name, in order to prevent it from being dishonored in the eyes of ...


5

It's capitalized in English by tradition, but there's really no reason to capitalize it. The earliest Greek manuscripts were written in all uncials or majuscular letters, without any intervening spaces between letters. For example, the following is John 1:1 as written in the Codex Sinaiticus: The Hebrew language, both ancient and modern, also lacked ...


4

Hannes, I am sorry this took so long for me to look into. While the Septuagint does use "your God," it is the only version I have found that does. Jerome's Vulgate uses "Ego Deus omnipotens" (I am God omnipotent). Likewise, of the three Targums I consulted, two had "God almighty" (Targum Pseudo Jonathan and the other is simply marked as Targumin from Hebrew ...


4

According to F.F. Bruce's Israel and the Nations (p 108): "the God of Heaven" is a title by which Yahweh is commonly designated under the Persian regime The phrase is not just used in Daniel, but also used in Ezra 7:12 where Ezra is designated "scribe of the law of the God of heaven" in Artaxerxe's letter to Ezra. It is used throughout the book of ...


4

"The name of YHVH comes from afar" seems puzzling; YHVH may come from afar, but what does it mean for his name to do so? Rashi, the medieval compiler of rabbinic tradition, writes the following: the Name of the Lord: His might, which will be for Him as a name, viz., what He will do to Sennacherib. He does not give a source, but this interpretation is ...


4

The Tetragrammaton, or "YHWH" which is often pronounced "Yahweh" or "Jehovah", is the proper name of the God of the Bible. The word "Elohim" or any variation thereof ("El", "Eloh", "Elah".. etc) is a title which means simply "God" or more precisely, "Mighty Ones" (in the case of "Elohim", or in the singular for all the others) and not a proper name. Just as ...


4

Verse 15:2 says: וַיֹּאמֶר אַבְרָם אֲדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה מַה תִּתֶּן לִי וְאָנֹכִי הוֹלֵךְ עֲרִירִי וּבֶן מֶשֶׁק בֵּיתִי הוּא דַּמֶּשֶׂק אֱלִיעֶזֶר The phrase at issue here is "אַדֹנָי יֱהֹוִה" -- the word on the right being "Adonai" which literally means "my lords" (note plural), but in context is a reference to God. The word to the left is the Divine ...


4

While @H3br3wHamm3r81 has provided a fine answer to this question, there is one more wrinkle that can be added for the sake of completeness. We know of a tradition of supplying the Tetragram (Y-H-W-H), HaShem, the name of God, in special characters from the Dead Sea Scrolls. One of the clearest places to see this is in the Psalms scroll from Cave 11: Or, ...


4

Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


4

According to Ibn Ezra it means a flame of God fire of a great flame: coals of a strong fire that comes from the force of the flame of Gehinnom. The cantillation symbol of the zakef gadol, which punctuates רִשְּׁפֵּי (coals of) teaches us about the word אֵשּׁ (fire) that it is connected to שַּׁלְהֶבֶתיָהּ, meaning fire of a great flame, [or a flame of ...


4

Gesenius lexicon for Strong's 3050 has a slightly expanded explanation. There either יַהֲַוֹה or יַהְַוֶה is allowed to be an earlier pronounciation of YHWH, and the form Yah is explained by apocope to יָהוּ and then by omission of the unaccented וּ to the final יָהּ. As a further evidence, Gesenius points that "these forms are used promiscuously" (sic) at ...


3

I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ ...


3

Often, but not always, a title given to and associated with God will be written as two words in Hebrew. They might separate the words with a makkeph, which looks like a dash but is at the top of the line instead of the middle (technically, this makes the words one in Hebrew and shifts the accent). If there is no makkeph, the words will be written as two ...


3

I think the simple reason for that this plural noun is translated into other languages as a singular noun is because it's being used with a singular verb. This would be comparable to saying "Ants is here to stay" instead of "Ants are here to stay". It turns this plural word ("ants") into a proper noun. In the Hebrew Bible Elohim, when meaning the God of ...


3

The NWT translation rests on two quirks of Greek. Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ...(SBLGNT) the throne of you the God into the age of the age, ...(my nearly word-for-word translation) First, the nominative case and the vocative case often share the same forms. So the original passage has two occurrences of the word form "ὁ" ("the") ...


3

It is not plain to me that ehyeh and Yahweh are related at all.The footnote in the NIV says something like "the two words sound the same and can be derived from each other", which always struck me as a rather dishonest comment. They certainly don't sound alike, regardless of the vocalization you choose for the tetragrammaton, and it is far from obvious what ...


3

Abraham did receive a son at the old age of Sarah and his. He as good as sacrificed him and received him back. He did not enter into God's rest as surely as the Israelites didn't who died in the wilderness and their children didn't who were lead into the land by Joshua. I can not favour the thought that those Israelites should have experienced God ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible