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13

Greek text is Nestle-Aland 27; English text is World English Bible: 16:19 δώσω σοι τὰς κλεῖδας τῆς βασιλείας τῶν οὐρανῶν, 16:19 I will give to you the keys of the Kingdom of Heaven, "(to) you" [soi] here is singular καὶ ὃ ἐὰν δήσῃς ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ἔσται δεδεμένον ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς, and whatever you bind on earth will have been bound in heaven; ...


9

Jesus continuously said things that got to the heart of the matter. This example is no different. In your quote from Matthew we see a young man that wants to know what good thing he must do to get eternal life. Eventually, Jesus says what you have quoted. What the man then does and what Jesus says immediately after revels what Jesus meant. 22 When the ...


9

No. The tetragrammaton was not used in Jesus' time. Faithful Jews would avoid saying it so as to not transgress the third commandment. The most common circumlocution was "Lord" (Andonai in Hebrew or Kurios in Greek), though he might also be referred to simply as "Heaven." In answer to Jesus using El from the cross. El is the common word for God from all ...


9

The Greek word behind remorse/repent is μεταμεληθεὶς, pronounced metameletheis, coming from metamelomai. It is found six times in the New Testament: Matthew 21:29, 32; 27:3; 2 Corinthians 7:8 (twice); and Hebrews 7:21 (quoting from Psalm 110:4 where it translates the Hebrew nacham). It is uniformly translated as "repent" in the KJV. While some may say that ...


8

Lexical Discussion The etymology of the word ἀδελφός is "from the collative a ..., denoting unity, and delphús (n.f.), a womb."1 So the chief idea is as BDAG and other lexicons state,2 that of a true brother or sister coming from the same mother (parents).3 However, as you noted, the word can be used in a variety of figurative, yet still physical relation ...


8

In the English language the expression "son of X" usually means an offshoot from X and therefore something which is distinct from X. Therefore "Son of God" may seem to imply a being who is not God. But in Hebrew idiom "A is the son of B" may mean that A shares the same nature as B, or A is a member of the group B. For example: Genesis 5:32 says literally ...


7

General Statements on Jesus' Son of Man and Enoch's Son of Man There is a literary connection. Brad Young (a scholar who seeks to illuminate the words of the New Testament by their parallels in rabbinic and intertestamental literature) includes a section on Enoch's use of the Son of Man in his work Jesus the Jewish Theologian.1 In 1 Enoch 46, we read: 1 ...


7

The position in the question, that Father, Son, and Holy Spirit is not original to Matthew 28:19 is held today by very few scholars. Those that do point to a quotation from the early church historian Eusebius. In Demonstratio 3.6, he replaces "name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit" with "my name." This is then taken as a direct quote from the copy of ...


6

According to The Greek New Testament (4th Edition), edited by Aland, Metzger, et al. (2012), this verse does not appear in the best Greek manuscripts available. In order to save ourselves the tedious task of comparing and contrasting the pros and cons of the variant readings, the late Bruce Metzger has also published the companion volume, which is A Textual ...


6

Is this a significant scholarly position? Significant enough that it is discussed regularly in various scholarly places. For example, there is extensive discussion in a fairly recent work: D. A. Carson and Douglas J. Moo, An Introduction to the New Testament, 2nd ed. (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2005), 142-150 (hereafter referred to as C&M). In that ...


6

No, it does not mean that they all share the same name. It does not even mean that any of them has a name at all. "In the name of" is a fixed phrase. It is a single unit with a fixed meaning, "with appeal to" or "by the authority of" and that's all there is to it. You are free to replace it, as a whole, with either of these paraphrases to see that ...


6

Yes, Baptism is well attested in Jewish sources dating from both before and after Christ. These are both for mainstream Judaism and sectarian. From before Jesus, one finds clear references to baptism in the Dead Sea Scrolls. See for example, 1QS (The Community Rule) and 4Q274-276 (The Purity Texts). From sources dating after Jesus (but portraying ...


6

Jesus spoke primarily Aramaic followed by Hebrew and Greek. Since most of the new testament was written in greek, you will probably never find it recorded that Jesus said "YHWH" in scriptures. This doesn't mean he didn't say it, it's just a translation thing. Furthermore, it was Hebrew tradition to interpose the name Adonai inside of "YHWH" which is ...


6

As a supplement to Frank Luke's answer, I add another way of thinking about it. The construction in English is very similar to the Greek: not X, but [instead] Y. (Wallace calls ἀλλὰ here a contrastive conjunction.1) For example, if I say "Put not your hand into boiling water, but use a spoon." The contrast is between: X= put your hand into boiling ...


6

Introductory Note "Support" would be too strong a word; rather, there is nothing in this verse that necessarily argues against "eternal conscious torment." However, "with respect to this verse alone," it obviously cannot be a lone "support" for the doctrine, since the verse does not mention eternality at all (nor does it deny such); neither does it make ...


6

In Mt 6:13 the Syriac translation of the Bible (Pšīttā) has bīšā (ܒܝܫܐ), which is masculine gender, determinate state, singular of the adjective “bad, evil”, so the most literal translation would be “the evil one”. The abstract noun “evil, badness” is bīšūṯā (ܒܝܫܘܬܐ), or you can use the feminine determinate singular of the adjective, namely bīštā (ܒܝܫܬܐ) ...


6

Analysis of Sinaiticus (yes, א is the symbol) has led to the conclusion that there are three general periods of additional editing. So the symbols represent information about these periods. Per the NA28 Introductory material on the critical apparatus: א by itself means the only reading present. א* Is a notation for the original reading when a later ...


5

Texts in Greek It's worth noting that the command to "love neighbour as self" extends beyond these two parallel passages from the gospels, and originates in a much earlier time and in a different language. Here are the texts in Greek: Leviticus 19:18 ... καὶ ἀγαπήσεις τὸν πλησίον σου ὡς σεαυτόν ἐγώ εἰμι κύριος ... and you shall love your neighbour ...


5

The parables’ interpretation hinges on the identity of Jesus’ brothers. While it is true that at least some of these “brothers” are in need, their need does not define them. The need simply identifies them as the “least.” Jesus, in Matthew 12:48, has already made known the identity of his “brothers.” Who are my mother and my brothers?” Then pointing ...


5

Here is the text of Matthew 16:18 set out in Greek of Nestle-Aland 27 and English of ESV (as above): κἀγὼ δέ σοι λέγω ὅτι σὺ εἶ Πέτρος, kagō de soi legō hoti su ei Petros And I tell you, you are Peter, καὶ ἐπὶ ταύτῃ τῇ πέτρᾳ οἰκοδομήσω μου τὴν ἐκκλησίαν kai epi tautē tē(i) petra(i) oikodomēsō mou tēn ekklēsian and on this rock I will build ...


5

There are a few scattered scholars who did believe this, though it is certainly not the prevailing opinion. The Wikipedia article, as well as most Biblical Encyclopedias, write that the text of Matthew doesn't look like a translation. However, at least a few scholars did believe that the Gospel of Matthew was first written in Hebrew. The Wikipedia article ...


5

The Connection is Unnecessary (Probably Unprovable) It seems unprovable that it is certainly a reference to 1 Enoch 69:27 (see Frank Luke's answer for a possible connection), simply because there is too much other canonical OT background material to support the statement without such a direct connection. The connection between the Son of Man and sitting on ...


5

The word translated "but" is alla. It is used to show the next clause is adverse to the first. Usually, the word is translated as "but." According to the NET translation team, it can be used in the sense of: 1) but 1a) nevertheless, notwithstanding 1b) an objection 1c) an exception 1d) a restriction 1e) nay, rather, yea, moreover 1f) forms a transition ...


5

It can be somewhat dangerous exegetically to try to force too much meaning into a specific word or phrase from a parable. Parables are meant to be evocative illustrations (not encrypted cyphers), so dissecting them too rigidly is akin to assigning specific meaning to every brush stroke in a Van Gogh painting. The most important thing, when approaching one of ...


5

The Heart Any understanding of this instruction must take account of the logic of Matthew 5:1-6:6 - which is all about the heart. For example when Jesus speaks about adultery in Matthew 5: 27“You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ 28But I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lustful intent has already committed ...


5

In my (limited) understanding, the key arguments put forward for the order Mark > Luke > Matthew (i.e., for "Matthean posteriority") are: the literary observation that Matthew appears to collect, collate, and develop traditions found in Luke (e.g., what appears in Matt 5-7 in the "Sermon on the Mount" is found at various points, and in a more "primitive" ...


5

Answer: In the Context of the Sermon on the Mount, and the entire Context of Matthew, (especially the end), it is apparent that the text demonstrates that all of Jesus' commandments were to be taught as a part of Discipleship, and to be acted upon. This means we can reasonably infer that Jesus wanted them to act upon everything he ...


5

In the larger context of the Matthew passage you cite (11:1-20), Jesus' focus is on John the Baptizer and John's ministry as Messiah's forerunner (see also Mark 1 and Luke 3). John's commission from God was to prepare the way for the Lord, and in essence John's message was a message (and baptism) of repentance. The common people flocked to John, and John ...


5

The textual variants are ἰδὼν and εἰδώς. According to Tischendorf, ἰδών is the well attested variant. ἰδών is a participle declined in the aorist tense, active voice, nominative case, masculine gender, and singular number. It is derived from the aorist tense verb εἶδον. εἰδώς is a participle declined in the perfect tense, active voice, nominative case, ...


5

Yes, the imperative is an accurate translation.1 The text in question: ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε εἰς τὸν οἶκόν σου. (NA28) “Rise, pick up your bed and go home.” (ESV) The first two words I will label: ἐγερθεὶς: participle (aorist passive) ἆρόν: main verb (2nd person, aorist active imperative) This usage of the participle is ...



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