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The Idea in Brief Tamar was more righteous than Judah because she recognized the Abrahamic Covenant in the seed of the sons of Jacob. Like Ruth, who later coveted the same seed of promise, Tamar was the line through whom King David was to be born. This hope in the promise of Abraham's Covenant reflected the same righteousness which Abraham had for believing ...


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There are some helpful reflections in the existing answers, although one flaw affects them all, and it is embedded in the question, as posed, itself... The Meaning of ṢDQ? The flaw is the assumption that Hebrew verb (in Gen 38:26) ṣādaq should be understood here as "righteous", where "righteous" stands for some kind of ethical purity next to holiness ...


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Tamar was more righteous because she saw the whole situation and Judah did not. She was “at the end of her rope,” in the society in which she lived. She had complied with Judah’s wishes as far as she could; she married two of his sons (Er and Onan), but she was at the point where she didn’t have any options left. It seems clear that Judah wasn’t going to ...


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You focus on Tamar. But first I would encourage you to focus on Judah. Judah was familiar with the law (as were all players in this family drama.) Yet his two eldest sons were so badly behaved that God struck them down. What does that say about the kind of father (and man) Judah was, that he should have two sons who so displeased the Lord? And why, then, ...


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Tamar conceived through committing incest with her father-in-law (Gen. 38:6-27). Morally speaking, this was deplorable and ethically speaking, it was awful. Nobody would justify this. In a sense, what Tamar did was not good at all. Nevertheless, she was righteous. The fault was not on her side, but on the side of her father-in-law, Judah, who admitted that ...


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You must keep in mind that these societies predate any concept of "inalienable rights" or "personal integrity". Whether someone is righteous or not is up to the perception of their peers and chain of patrons (possibly all the way up to God). The god, patron, or public determine on a very subjective case-by-case basis what is right or wrong. Judah was not ...


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According to Matthew 19:9, getting divorced does not cause a woman to become an adulteress (or a man to become an adulterer); getting divorced and then marrying someone else does (unless the husband or wife committed fornication beforehand). This is why Paul says in 1 Corinthians 7:10-11 (NKJV): Now to the married I command, yet not I but the Lord: A ...


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Jesus is simply correcting the Sadducee's wrong assumption that the marriage ties here on earth will continue after the resurrection. God has things in store for his followers that we can't even imagine (and I don't know about you, but I can imagine quite a lot): But as it is written: “Eye has not seen, nor ear heard, nor have entered into the heart of ...


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This is part of a series of illustrations on interpreting the law[1] We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but ...


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The marriage tie can be broken only by death (Rom. 7:3) or fornication. Hence, to have a divorce for any other reason is to commit adultery. But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife, except for fornication, and marries another, commits adultery; and he who marries her who has been divorced commits adultery. (Matt. 19:9) So then if, while the ...



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