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Matthew 19:5 - We need to pick up at v. 4: ...ὁ κτίσας ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν αὐτοὺς 5 καὶ εἶπεν·... Here, the verbs (in bold) both have the same antecedent: epoiēsen and eipen both have as their subject ho ktisas. So it runs "the one who created ... made ... and said ...". Matthew 19:8 - the clue to handling ap' archēs again comes in v. 4: v. 4: ...


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Regardless of how the particle γὰρ is translated, I don't think a causal relationship between marriage and death can be avoided in these verses. If we take γὰρ in its basic sense of "for", then Jesus seems to be saying that there will be no marriage in the resurrection because there will be no death. To understand why Jesus would say this, we must first ...


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Based on a comparison of various translations of this passage, it would appear that the conjunction γὰρ does not necessarily always imply a direct dependency. The NETBible, for example, translates it as "in fact". So Jesus appears to be using this conjunction to "pivot" from the Sadducees misunderstanding of marriage in the afterlife, to their ...


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Some possible answers may be found in 1 Corinthians 7. Here, Paul explains the necessity of marriage for those believers who are oppressed & tormented by instinctual (natural) sexual lust. But about the Resurrection to the Deathless state, Paul states: 29. What I mean, my friends, is this: there is not much time left, and from now on married people ...



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