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Peter's spiritual state Were the disciples regenerate? Oddly it doesn't appear they were. It doesn't appear so, though they are said to "believe in Jesus": Joh_2:11 This beginning of miracles did Jesus in Cana of Galilee, and manifested forth his glory; and his disciples believed on him. But they did not yet seem to believe that Jesus would be ...


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This is one of those passages that you have to read all of the gospels and look at everything that was going on within the 24 hr period in question. For each gospel tells us something a little different. In Luke's account, we do not hear the bit about the spirit being weak. It does however, tell us that Satan had asked to sift Peter. And furthermore, Jesus ...


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In Mark 14:38, it is written, Watch and pray so that you do not enter temptation. The spirit is ready, but the flesh is weak. γρηγορεῖτε καὶ προσεύχεσθε ἵνα μὴ εἰσέλθητε εἰς πειρασμόν τὸ μὲν πνεῦμα πρόθυμον ἡ δὲ σὰρξ ἀσθενής TR, 1550 According to John 7:39, those who believed in Jesus (which would have included his apostles) were not given the ...


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I think your answer is in the verse you quoted. [Christ] told them, “The secret of the kingdom of God has been given to you. But to those on the outside everything is said in parables. (Mark 4:11, NIV) Nicodemus asked a similar question and Christ responded: I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe ...


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I'm a scientist not a Greek language expert but I previously did a Bayesian probability analysis on the hypothesis that Mark 1:9 contains a scribal error vs. an interpolation/redaction using information from Bart Ehrman and Jesus mythicist/Nazareth mythicist Frank Zindler. I concluded that the probability of a scribal error vs. an interpolation was about ...


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The omission of the definite article before the name of Jesus in Mark 1:9 could very likely be due to scribal error (deletion) since scribal errors are very common in New Testament texts. The occurrence of the words Jesus and Nazareth and a scribal error in the same verse could simply be due to coincidence. After all, the omission of the definite article ...


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Does the NT use of “abba” to address God imply a more intimate relationship than found in the tanakh? Yes and no. Yes, I think it’s fair to say that, since “Abba” precedes “father,” there is more of a calling out, a persistence, saying it twice and saying it differently. This implies intimacy. Thayer’s Lexicon (Abba): “father, in the Chald. ...


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I can only find one instance of αββα in the LXX. It is used in 2 Chronicles 29:1 to render the name of Hezekiah's mother, "Abijah". The Hebrew word in this place is אֲבִיָּ֖ה (Strong's H29, Abiyyah), which means "Jehovah is my father" or "Yah is my father". 24 times prior to this, the LXX used Αβια for this name. It seems reasonable to me, highly likely ...


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Uta Ranke-Heinemann says, in Putting Away Childish Things, page 138, theologians are by now in practically unanimous agreement that Mark 16:9-20 is a later interpolation. The Gospel original ended at verse 16:9 with the young man telling the women that Jesus was risen and they fled in terror, telling no one. If we regard the Gospel of Mark as divinely ...


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The second of the two subjunctive verbs in Mark 14:12 is unproblematic: in classical and post-classical Greek the conjunction ἵνα is always followed by a verb in the subjunctive mode if the verb in the principal clause is in the present tense (as it is here). This is simply a rule of Greek grammar. The first of the two subjunctives is slightly more ...



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