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I should think that the language in which you pray to your God and father in a dire situation at the end of your life would probably be your primary language, no? And since he was quoting a passage that he would have only been exposed to from Hebrew or Greek scriptures and yet spoke them in Aramaic it gives further evidence that his native tongue was ...


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What Language Did Jesus Speak Most Often? The scholarly consensus is clear on this issue: Jesus' native tongue was Aramaic, specifically a Galilean dialect of Aramaic. Why Were Jesus' Words Recorded In Greek? It is simple to understand why the Gospels were written in Greek. Most of the communities of early Christians were Greek-speaking; this was ...


3

In Mary in the New Testament, Raymond Brown, Joseph Fitzmyer, and Karl Donfried offer a fairly balanced presentation of the main interpretations of the phrase "son of Mary" that have been suggested by scholars: Mark is trying to stress the human characteristics of Jesus in response to "God only" view of his audience. That is, Joseph is not mentioned ...


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I am a little bit confused by your statement that “the Aramaic translation would equate to something like…” In fact there is no need for “would”. The Aramaic (Syriac, Pshitta) translation of Mark 6 :3 is : ܠܳܐ ܗ݈ܘܳܐ ܗܳܢܳܐ ܢܰܓ݁ܳܪܳܐ ܒ݁ܪܳܗ ܕ݁ܡܰܪܝܰܡ ܘܰܐܚܽܘܗ݈ܝ ܕ݁ܝܰܥܩܽܘܒ݂ ܘܰܕ݂ܝܳܘܣܺܐ ܘܕ݂ܺܝܗܽܘܕ݂ܳܐ ܘܰܕ݂ܫܶܡܥܽܘܢ which is exactly like the Greek: οὐχ οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ...


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Whether Jesus was referring to the Mount of Olive or the Temple Mount I believe is irrelevant. He could have just been using the mountain as an example of something deeply rooted, such as a tree, to convey the power of faith. A mountain appears to be immovable, but with God all things are possible if you believe. Any mountain would do to demonstrate God's ...


4

The word 'ἠγέρθη' transliterates into ēgerthē, meaning in its infinitive form 'to rise'. To understand the intended meaning of the word in a specific case we should look both at how the word is used elsewhere in the same work, using a semantic analysis, and at the immediate surrounding context of the narrative, using an informative analysis. Note also that ...


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The Greek word ἠγέρθη simply means that Jesus was 'raised' and, without context, could mean that Jesus was raised in the physical world or taken bodily up into heaven. The context we have in Mark, as originally written (to end at verse 16:9), is that Jesus' body was not there, and he was not seen again. Two chapters earlier, in verse 13:26, Mark's Jesus ...


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I viewed the video. It's a good parallel, but it do not line up with scriptures as to his omniscience in this question. To understand the answer that I'm about to give, one must first understand God as the Diversity, or the share of himself in flesh and bones. The Son is God in flesh, glorified, and is in all/full power, he should know as God the father ...


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The author of "Mark" clearly had in mind Malachi 4:2 but in the LXX. The translation of Mark you provided elided "the hem of his garment" to "but touch his garment" but that hides the allusion. In the LXX Malachi 4:2 says that he will rise "with healing in his fringes".


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I agree with Alexander that the addition of "he declared" is unwarranted. What is clearly in view is the idea that the body deals with dirt and it never gets into the "heart". Jesus was not upending the Mosaic dietary laws but rather the strict tradition of ritual hand washing for every common meal, not just in the priesthood. Jesus retains kosher vs ...


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The fig tree cursing narrative is found in Matthew's and Mark's gospels. Mark's account varies in sequence from Matthew's account as it is written in two sections: First, after departing the temple, Jesus sees the fig tree in leaf, but no fruit found, followed by cursing [Mark 11:12-14]. Second, after departing from temple (Where Jesus drives out money ...



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