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45

If it did refer to something that was merely difficult, the immediate reaction of the disciples would be incomprehensible: 26And they were exceedingly astonished, and said to him, "Then who can be saved?"   ESV As would Jesus' response: 27Jesus looked at them and said, "With man it is impossible, but not with God. For all things are ...


37

The idea of the "eye of the needle" being a gate apparently had its origins in the Middle Ages. From The Straight Dope: Next, the history and archaeology. The notion your Baptist friend has picked up apparently comes from a single ninth-century commentary which asserts that in first-century Jerusalem there was a gate called the Needle's Eye which a ...


31

Palestine at the time of Jesus was something of a crossroads for culture and language. It's entirely possible a young man growing up in the region would have been exposed to at least four different languages: Greek, Aramaic, Latin, and Hebrew. Aramaic Far and away the most common language that Jesus is quoted in is Greek. But that seems largely due to the ...


24

The phrases “the kingdom of God” (ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ) and “the kingdom of Heaven” (ἡ βασιλεία τῶν οὐρανῶν) occur eighty-six (86) times in the Textus Receptus (1550) Greek manuscript of the gospels. The phrase “kingdom of Heaven” occurs thirty-two (32) times and only in the Gospel of Matthew. The phrase “kingdom of God” occurs thirty-two (32) times in the ...


22

Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for ...


18

The Greek word for robber in John 18:40 is λῃστής. This word is defined by Strong's Enhanced Lexicon this way: 3027 ἀρχιλῃστής, λῃστής [lestes /lace·tace/] n m. From leizomai (to plunder);15 occurrences; AV translates as “thief” 11 times, and “robber” four times. 1 a robber, plunderer, freebooter, brigand. The Greek word used as murder here is ...


17

My understanding is that a strong majority of scholars (including conservative scholars) take the position that the long ending of Mark was not in the original and was not written by the same author as the rest of the text, but nonetheless was added very early on (probably in the early 2nd century). However, the evidence is not as overwhelming as for the ...


14

There are no important textual variations here: all our manuscripts include this parenthetical. There's no manuscript evidence whatsoever that this is a later insertion. (See this list of textual variants as well as the lack of any variants listed at the NET bible.) Thus we can be completely certain that the head of the manuscript tradition (that is the ...


14

This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. The NA28 includes the text similar to the GNT you quote: . . . τοῦτο τὸ γένος ἐν οὐδενὶ δύναται ἐξελθεῖν εἰ μὴ ἐν προσευχῇ (NA28) . . . this kind cannot be driven out by anything but prayer (ESV) The apparatus notes the variant you ask about (the ...


12

A detailed study on this issue by Daniel B. Wallace of the Evangelical Theological Society discusses five possibilities: Text-Critical: The text as it stands is incorrect and needs to be emended. Dominical: Jesus himself made a mistake or was intentionally midrashic (i.e., he embellished the OT story to make his point). Source-critical: Mark’s source (...


12

Abstract The primary argument for Markian priority is the strong evidence that both Luke and Matthew redacted Mark's material. If Mark were a summary of Matthew, we would expect it to smooth out any rough edges. However the reverse is true. In the triple tradition, it's invariably Mark that has the rough edges that are smoothed out by Luke and Matthew. ...


12

Every commentary I could find has seemingly a different interpretation on this passage! I have however, managed to distil these down into two main interpretations: 1. Jesus was going to pass them by, but was diverted The phrase "meant to" in the ESV and RSV is also translated "would have" in the KJV. The Greek word used here is thelō which means to wish or ...


11

Popular interpretations as to what event is anticipated by "the kingdom of God" coming in power include the following: The transfiguration The resurrection The ascension The day of Pentecost The second coming A couple things stand out in the passage that are worth noting. First, Jesus has just given indication that the disciples may end up soon ...


11

I found out that "camel" in Aramaic can mean "thick rope made out of camel-hair". This seems like a natural interpretation to me, because the rich man is like a coarse rope, and the entrance to the kingdom of heaven is like a small needle, and the coarse rope will not pass. It makes the parallel more explicit, and it is more eloquent (although less ...


11

This is not a question of textual criticism, nor is there any reason to reject the authenticity of Mark 7:19. It is entirely a question of interpreting the text. Let us look at the oldest versions: The Greek original has: οτι ουκ εισπορευεται αυτου εις την καρδιαν αλλ εις την κοιλιαν και εις τον αφεδρωνα εκπορευεται καθαριζων παντα τα βρωματα The ...


11

I will start from the Greek and explain the reasons for the discrepancies between your translation and the ESV (which I consider a faithful rendition of the Greek here). ὅτι οὐκ εἰσπορεύεται αὐτοῦ εἰς τὴν καρδίαν ἀλλ᾿ εἰς τὴν κοιλίαν, καὶ εἰς τὸν ἀφεδρῶνα ἐκπορεύεται, καθαρίζων πάντα τὰ βρώματα; (NA28) since not it enters her/he into mind/soul, ...


10

Short Answer: After weighing all of the evidence (both internal and external), it would seem that Mark 16:9-20 was indeed originally part of Mark's Gospel. The ending of Mark's Gospel is one of the major textual problems in the New Testament.1 As noted by the OP, the "problem" is whether the end of Mark (16:9-20) was originally part of Mark's Gospel. ...


10

Some say the "Kingdom of Heaven" refers to the a physical/political kingdom on earth while the "Kingdom of God" is the spiritual, coming reign of Christ. Arguments against the two being the same often come down to hair splitting and misinterpretation of verses. For example, the site listed above relies on a single verse in an attempt to say they are ...


10

There is no conclusive internal evidence but there are plenty of pointers that lend themselves to the conclusion that Peter is in some way the source, for example this blog post lists some examples: Peter is the first and last named disciple in Mark (1:16; 16:7). Peter is mentioned more than any other disciple in Mark. Peter appears in some of the ...


10

A Plausible Majority Text Argument Susan's answer has correctly given the direct answer to your question when she states: This is a textual issue. That is, some manuscripts have the words and fasting while others don’t. That is the simple fact. Which manuscript tradition the particular translation in question is following determines the omission or ...


10

Hasting's dictionary is an old book and it does not reflect current scholarly opinion about Semitic languages. The Aramaic word ṭalyā, feminine ṭlīṯā is an adjective meaning “young”, and then a noun meaning “boy/girl” and “servant”. It is etymologically related to Hebrew ṭāle, Arabic ṭalā, which mean “young animal” and specifically “lamb”, but this is not ...


9

Reading this passage today made me want to research it. Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath, and He came to fulfill the law not break it. This passage has several aspects that are best read together as Jesus combines them: Jesus and Disciples Pluck and Eat Grains on the Sabbath At that time Jesus went through the grainfields on the Sabbath. And His disciples ...


9

The letter gimel has the meaning of a 'rich man chasing after a poor man' (1) and camel is gamal, an obvious pun. The rich young ruler had just chased after Jesus (a poor man) and played a game of threading the needle. This is where the law is defined by the individual so that he finds himself narrowly avoiding a violation of the law in his own eyes. ...


9

There are places in the Bible where "the world" means less than the globe, yet it would still not include all of Africa or Eurasia. For instance, "all the world should be taxed" in Luke 2:1. Clearly, Augustus' decree only held weight in the Empire, its provinces, and protectorates. Acts 11:28 is similar "a great famine over all the earth." That would ...


9

The original washing of hand before eating applied only sanctified food such as to cohanim (descendents of Aaron) when eating trumah, Levites when eating maaser and to other people when eating maaser sheni in Jerusalem on the pilgrimage holidays of Passover, Weeks and Tabernacles. About the time of Jesus, the Pharisees began a custom of eating hulin (...


9

According to Bruce M. Metzger, in his able Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament (Stuttgart: Deutschebibelgesellschaft, 2012), the academy places their highest certitude "{A}" that the verse of Mark 11:26 was not part of the original autograph. On Page 93 of his commentary, Metzger says that ...although it might be thought that the sentence was ...


9

Good question. My sense is that to get a fully satisfactory answer, Mark's version ought to be read beside the other accounts in the Synoptics (Matthew, Luke). (Those interested can read them, with the addition of John, in English and Greek at BibleGateway.) For Mark 11:3, the parallels work this way (n.b.: although John has a version of the "Triumphal ...


9

This is a tough one, and every commentator I've consulted (quite a few) acknowledges that this is probably an intractable problem. One common theme, however, is the resistance to simply explaining away the enigma and even offense. Two variables commonly condsidered are (1) the agricultural details (what is the season, and what kind of fruit?); which can ...


9

There appear to be at least four decent options for the interpretation of "this mountain" in Mark 11:23 canvassed by the commentators. (1) there is no specific mountain in mind. True, the Greek here (and in the parallels in Matt 17:20 and (with variation) Luke 17:6, where it is "sycamore" rather than "mountain"; cf. also 1 Cor 13:2) is "say to this ...


9

Mark is more reliable.¹ Even if you were to completely discredit Mark², something is more than nothing. You cannot reasonably compare the accuracy of one document that exists with one that is only speculated to exist. Anybody that tries to tell you differently is selling something³. Answering your stated question is really that simple. In the world of ...



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