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7

This was not, perhaps, Leon Morris's finest moment (quote is on p. 17, originally published 1974), although he certainly wasn't alone in assuming this datum. Neither Howard Marshall, nor John Nolland make mention of Marcion in their circumspect discussions of the attribution of authorship of the third (canonical) gospel -- simply to cite two subsequent ...


7

The Muratorian fragment isn't simply a list of books included in the canon, but also a description of them. It's description of the Gospel of Luke makes it very clear that they believed it was written by Luke: The third book of the Gospel [is that] according to Luke. Luke, "the" physician, after the ascension of Christ, when Paul had taken him with him ...


6

The short answer is, because he ate "locusts and wild honey" (Mt 3:4; Mk 1:6). The slightly longer explanation is that John the Baptist lived a simple life (Lk 7:25) in the wilderness, where he was called from (Lk 3:2) and in which he ministered (Mt 3:1; Mk 1:4; Lk 7:24). Thus he lived off the land by eating these insects for protein, fat, and nutrients (as ...


5

It is Passive The verb is ἐκρατοῦντο (ekratounto), which is the imperfect passive indicative 3rd plural of the verb κρατέω (krateō), which in this context has the idea of "restrain."1 However, it is not that they did not "see" Jesus (v.15) in some respect, but that when they saw Him, they did not "know" (ἐπιγνῶναι; epignōnai) it was Him, hence the NRSV ...


5

Indisputable? I agree with Frank Luke's comment, further adding that using such a term does technically make the question unanswerable (because, as Frank noted, people dispute things that ought not be). Probable Testimony Circa 60-70 A.D. The earliest probable reference to Luke's gospel is by the apostle Paul himself in 1 Tim 5:18, circa mid 60's A.D. ...


5

In my (limited) understanding, the key arguments put forward for the order Mark > Luke > Matthew (i.e., for "Matthean posteriority") are: the literary observation that Matthew appears to collect, collate, and develop traditions found in Luke (e.g., what appears in Matt 5-7 in the "Sermon on the Mount" is found at various points, and in a more "primitive" ...


5

1 Kings 17:23 = Lk 7:15 καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτὸν τῇ μητρὶ αὐτοῦ The wording in Lk 7:15 agrees word for word with 1 Kings 17:23 (LXX). I think it is very likely that the author of Luke had the LXX version of the Elijah story in front of him (or at least in his memory) and took it as a literary model. Compare also: 1 Kings 17:10 εἰς τὸν πυλῶνα τῆς πόλεως, καὶ ...


5

Short Answer: "Two swords will be sufficient" fits the semantics, but has significant contextual difficulties. "Enough!" fits the broader context better, but has other significant difficulties. The best explanation seems to be that Jesus was not thrilled with their interpretation of His instructions, but this wasn't clear to them until after the fact, and ...


4

Analysis of the Greek Below is given the Greek of the majority text for both the Matthew and Luke passages. The UBS/NA text omits the words below that are in [brackets]. Thus, Luke 11:2 does not contain the phrase in Luke if one follows the minority reading. Note that otherwise, the passages are the same, so I have only translated Matthew here (since it ...


4

The passage in Luke 17 appears to be parallel to Matthew 24. If these passages are parallel, then the birds of prey refer to events evident in the heavens that point to judgment on earth. Like the lightning that flashes in the sky, these phenomena in the heavens "illuminate" the Day of the Lord when the spiritually dead are judged on earth. That is, birds of ...


4

There does seem to have been a developing sense of divisions of the Hebrew scriptures in the Second Temple period, with 'the Law' and 'the Prophets' mostly settled, but further divisions were still up in the air. The prologue of Sirach, written around 130 BC, mentions the Law, the Prophets, and 'the rest of the books of our fathers': Many great ...


4

I don't think anyone can be 100% certain, to be honest. But I would say the two most probable explanations are these: #1: Because Zechariah was old and his speech was the only significant sense. Zechariah was already an old man, and probably therein had some health issues. For example, it wouldn't make sense to strike him deaf because if he wasn't ...


4

The Textual Witnesses "Joseph" is found in some translations because the Greek word for Joseph (Ἰωσὴφ), is found in the majority of extant manuscripts. The majority text reading is reflected in the "RP Byzantine Majority Text," the two "Textus Receptus," and the "Greek Orthodox" renderings shown in parallel at Biblehub. Verse 33 is this ("Joseph" bolded): ...


3

You have asked about the order being Mark > Luke > Matthew. My answer below addresses the order of Luke being written before even Mark. This arrangement is called Lukan Priority. It is very much a minority opinion. As you know, the prevailing theory in New Testament studies is Markan Priority. It has the most support among scholars. A minority position ...


3

It is easy to show that Paul did not write the Epistle to the Hebrews, in fact that is the view of almost all modern scholars, who generally do not regard Hebrews as an epistle at all. Although attributed to Paul quite early, even many of the Church Fathers expressed doubts about Pauline authorship. When considering other possible authors, Luke was not among ...


3

There are so many similarities between the stories of Lazarus in Luke and John that you are right to recognise that there is evidence of copying. The usual scholarly position is that the story in Luke is original to Luke and that the author of John was inspired by this parable and by the Lukan story of Mary and Martha. Even if the name 'Lazarus' were a ...


3

The language of Luke 10:18 "ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ πεσόντα" echoes the Language of Isa 14:12 in the LXX "ἐξέπεσεν ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ". In the excellent book "Commentary on the New Testament use of the Old Testement" (Beale & Carson) it is pointed out that Jewish tradition also applies Is 14:12 to the fall of Satan as Jesus Christ does, they cite: 2 Enoch 29:3 ...


3

Not all prophets have recorded prophecy It should be noted that it is possible to a prophet and not have any of your prophetic utterances recorded in scripture, for example in 1 Kings 18:4 we read "For so it was, while Jezebel massacred the prophets of the LORD, that Obadiah had taken one hundred prophets and hidden them, fifty to a cave, and had fed them ...


3

Many commentators reflect on the muteness was both a sign and punishment. For example, R.H. Stein (1992) comments as follows. 1:20 You will be silent. Zechariah graciously was given a sign as an aid to faith even though the sign also was a rebuke for lack of faith. The sign was a punitive miracle but contained the promise “until the day this happens.” ...


2

See my answer to Jesus as Adam in the Gospels? Luke presents Jesus as a new Adam. This is beyond a doubt Luke’s purpose in the placement and arrangement of Jesus’ genealogy. Unlike Matthew who places his genealogy at the outset of his gospel, Luke places it immedietly after Jesus’ adult baptism and immediately prior to his three temptations. The genealogy ...


2

It's hard to determine why "on the right" might be used in this citing (with angels possibly not lacking "authority or honour”). At the same time Jesus probably didn't need more honor while in heaven; he sat on the right hand of God. Mark 16:19 (KJV) So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand ...


2

I believe you answered your own question with the scripture you attached with it. And it came to pass, that, while they communed together and reasoned, Jesus himself drew near, and went with them. But their eyes were holden that they should not know him. The point was that Christ withheld who He was from them. Most likely for the purpose of seeing ...


2

Under Jewish law, we could look to signs of puberty (e.g. the growth of two pubic hairs) as a sign that the boy has, for legal purposes, become a man and therefore can participate in business transactions and other responsible activites himself. See Babylonian Talmud, Nidah 45b - 46a (follow the link and use "find" and the words "two hairs" to quickly find ...


2

The surrounding context makes clear that the reference to taking up a cross is to be understood as a reference to death. 24Then Jesus told his disciples, “If anyone would come after me, let him deny himself and take up his cross and follow me. 25For whoever would save his life will lose it, but whoever loses his life for my sake will find it.[1] This ...


2

Perhaps commenter Jas3.1, above, is on the right track. The gospel writers do not say it, but Jesus' "cross talk" was but one instance of perhaps many "difficult sayings" which they and the other disciples did not truly understand until Jesus had died, rose again, and been glorified (e.g., John 6:60 ff., where Jesus explained this difficult saying to His ...


2

Rather than spend a month or two answering all of the questions laid out ἄνωθεν (wink), I'll add yet another perspective that neither authority nor time seem to be the dominant categories according to LSJ, but instead: spatial position (as when the "veil of the shrine was split from above unto below" in Mt 27:51), which may include heaven above earth, and ...


2

Lots of scholars look for alternatives to the traditional Mark-Q priority, but in my view without success. Dennis R. MacDonald wrote a well-researched thesis in Two Shipwrecked Gospels that Luke knew not only Mark, but also Matthew. That would have caused an even bigger stir among critical scholars than his book, The Homeric Epics and the Gospel of Mark, but ...


2

"THE TIMES OF THE GENTILES" - TO WHAT DOES THIS REFER? (Luke 21:24) “The times of the gentiles” is one of those phrases that is all too often lifted out of its context and invested with a meaning much wider than that originally intended. The phrase itself sits within the specific context of Jesus’ Olivet prophecy, which all three synoptists record (Mark ...


2

The Idea in Brief The "Times of the Gentiles" is the period of time when the visible theocratic kingdom on earth is absent. That is, when the visible theocratic kingdom on earth existed, the Biblical referent of time was in reference to what Jewish ruler(s) were in power. When the theocratic kingdom on earth ended with the departure of the glory of the Lord ...


2

The verse appears as follows in the Greek New Testament: Luke 1:37 (mGNT) 37 ὅτι οὐκ ἀδυνατήσει παρὰ τῷ θεῷ πᾶν ῥῆμα. The best literal translation would be as follows: Luke 1:37 (ASV) 37 For no word from God shall be void of power. The Word of God is therefore inviolable, or incapable of non-fulfillment. When the Lord speaks His word(s), the ...



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