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1 Kings 17:23 = Lk 7:15 καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτὸν τῇ μητρὶ αὐτοῦ The wording in Lk 7:15 agrees word for word with 1 Kings 17:23 (LXX). I think it is very likely that the author of Luke had the LXX version of the Elijah story in front of him (or at least in his memory) and took it as a literary model. Compare also: 1 Kings 17:10 εἰς τὸν πυλῶνα τῆς πόλεως, καὶ ...


5

Indisputable? I agree with Frank Luke's comment, further adding that using such a term does technically make the question unanswerable (because, as Frank noted, people dispute things that ought not be). Probable Testimony Circa 60-70 A.D. The earliest probable reference to Luke's gospel is by the apostle Paul himself in 1 Tim 5:18, circa mid 60's A.D. ...


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In my (limited) understanding, the key arguments put forward for the order Mark > Luke > Matthew (i.e., for "Matthean posteriority") are: the literary observation that Matthew appears to collect, collate, and develop traditions found in Luke (e.g., what appears in Matt 5-7 in the "Sermon on the Mount" is found at various points, and in a more "primitive" ...


5

Short Answer: "Two swords will be sufficient" fits the semantics, but has significant contextual difficulties. "Enough!" fits the broader context better, but has other significant difficulties. The best explanation seems to be that Jesus was not thrilled with their interpretation of His instructions, but this wasn't clear to them until after the fact, and ...


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Not all prophets have recorded prophecy It should be noted that it is possible to a prophet and not have any of your prophetic utterances recorded in scripture, for example in 1 Kings 18:4 we read "For so it was, while Jezebel massacred the prophets of the LORD, that Obadiah had taken one hundred prophets and hidden them, fifty to a cave, and had fed them ...


4

The passage in Luke 17 appears to be parallel to Matthew 24. If these passages are parallel, then the birds of prey refer to events evident in the heavens that point to judgment on earth. Like the lightning that flashes in the sky, these phenomena in the heavens "illuminate" the Day of the Lord when the spiritually dead are judged on earth. That is, birds of ...


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There does seem to have been a developing sense of divisions of the Hebrew scriptures in the Second Temple period, with 'the Law' and 'the Prophets' mostly settled, but further divisions were still up in the air. The prologue of Sirach, written around 130 BC, mentions the Law, the Prophets, and 'the rest of the books of our fathers': Many great ...


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I don't think anyone can be 100% certain, to be honest. But I would say the two most probable explanations are these: #1: Because Zechariah was old and his speech was the only significant sense. Zechariah was already an old man, and probably therein had some health issues. For example, it wouldn't make sense to strike him deaf because if he wasn't ...


4

The Textual Witnesses "Joseph" is found in some translations because the Greek word for Joseph (Ἰωσὴφ), is found in the majority of extant manuscripts. The majority text reading is reflected in the "RP Byzantine Majority Text," the two "Textus Receptus," and the "Greek Orthodox" renderings shown in parallel at Biblehub. Verse 33 is this ("Joseph" bolded): ...


3

It is easy to show that Paul did not write the Epistle to the Hebrews, in fact that is the view of almost all modern scholars, who generally do not regard Hebrews as an epistle at all. Although attributed to Paul quite early, even many of the Church Fathers expressed doubts about Pauline authorship. When considering other possible authors, Luke was not among ...


3

You have asked about the order being Mark > Luke > Matthew. My answer below addresses the order of Luke being written before even Mark. This arrangement is called Lukan Priority. It is very much a minority opinion. As you know, the prevailing theory in New Testament studies is Markan Priority. It has the most support among scholars. A minority position ...


3

There are so many similarities between the stories of Lazarus in Luke and John that you are right to recognise that there is evidence of copying. The usual scholarly position is that the story in Luke is original to Luke and that the author of John was inspired by this parable and by the Lukan story of Mary and Martha. Even if the name 'Lazarus' were a ...


3

Many commentators reflect on the muteness was both a sign and punishment. For example, R.H. Stein (1992) comments as follows. 1:20 You will be silent. Zechariah graciously was given a sign as an aid to faith even though the sign also was a rebuke for lack of faith. The sign was a punitive miracle but contained the promise “until the day this happens.” ...


2

Question Restatement: How did Joanna support Jesus' ministry. Are there cultural indicators, contexts, that show what she may have done? Limiting this answer to a text-only approach, to define what Phoebe probably did : Conclusion: (A.) As noted, "ὑπαρχόντων", in this text is translated as "means", but taken to mean "finances". This is not ...


2

Under Jewish law, we could look to signs of puberty (e.g. the growth of two pubic hairs) as a sign that the boy has, for legal purposes, become a man and therefore can participate in business transactions and other responsible activites himself. See Babylonian Talmud, Nidah 45b - 46a (follow the link and use "find" and the words "two hairs" to quickly find ...


2

The surrounding context makes clear that the reference to taking up a cross is to be understood as a reference to death. 24Then Jesus told his disciples, “If anyone would come after me, let him deny himself and take up his cross and follow me. 25For whoever would save his life will lose it, but whoever loses his life for my sake will find it.[1] This ...


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Perhaps commenter Jas3.1, above, is on the right track. The gospel writers do not say it, but Jesus' "cross talk" was but one instance of perhaps many "difficult sayings" which they and the other disciples did not truly understand until Jesus had died, rose again, and been glorified (e.g., John 6:60 ff., where Jesus explained this difficult saying to His ...


2

"THE TIMES OF THE GENTILES" - TO WHAT DOES THIS REFER? (Luke 21:24) “The times of the gentiles” is one of those phrases that is all too often lifted out of its context and invested with a meaning much wider than that originally intended. The phrase itself sits within the specific context of Jesus’ Olivet prophecy, which all three synoptists record (Mark ...


2

The Idea in Brief The "Times of the Gentiles" is the period of time when the visible theocratic kingdom on earth is absent. That is, when the visible theocratic kingdom on earth existed, the Biblical referent of time was in reference to what Jewish ruler(s) were in power. When the theocratic kingdom on earth ended with the departure of the glory of the Lord ...


2

Rather than spend a month or two answering all of the questions laid out ἄνωθεν (wink), I'll add yet another perspective that neither authority nor time seem to be the dominant categories according to LSJ, but instead: spatial position (as when the "veil of the shrine was split from above unto below" in Mt 27:51), which may include heaven above earth, and ...


2

Lots of scholars look for alternatives to the traditional Mark-Q priority, but in my view without success. Dennis R. MacDonald wrote a well-researched thesis in Two Shipwrecked Gospels that Luke knew not only Mark, but also Matthew. That would have caused an even bigger stir among critical scholars than his book, The Homeric Epics and the Gospel of Mark, but ...


2

The angel Gabriel had already foretold that John would receive the Holy Spirit even before his birth. 13 ... Your wife Elizabeth will bear you a son, and you are to call him John. 14 He will be a joy and delight to you, and many will rejoice because of his birth, 15 for he will be great in the sight of the Lord. He is never to take wine or other ...


2

Short Answer: The prodigal son appears to have been repentant. A Disrespectful Demand? I don't think the explanation you heard holds water, for two reasons. First, the imperative mood has a "grammatical range" (similar to how vocabulary words have a semantic range); it can be used to indicate a command / demand, but it isn't always used this way. ...


2

Consider the last clause of the verse "nor may those cross over from there to us." from μηδὲ ἐκεῖθεν πρὸς ἡμᾶς διαπερῶσιν. That is a plural pronoun. It seems logical to assume that the 'you' and the 'those' are the same group of people which strongly implies that the rich man was not alone on his side of the gulf. So the 'you' must refer to the people in ...


2

The word 'Gospel' is never applied to the records of Jesus' life by the Bible its self, rather it seems that the word is used of the message proclaimed, see for example: Matt. 4:23, Matt. 9:35, Matt. 11:5, Matt. 24:14, Matt. 26:13, Mk. 1:1, 14-15, Mk. 13:10, Mk. 14:9, Mk. 16:15, Lk. 4:18, Lk. 7:22, Lk. 9:6, Lk. 20:1, Acts 8:25, Acts 14:7, 21, Acts 15:7, Acts ...


2

The language of Luke 10:18 "ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ πεσόντα" echoes the Language of Isa 14:12 in the LXX "ἐξέπεσεν ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ". In the excellent book "Commentary on the New Testament use of the Old Testement" (Beale & Carson) it is pointed out that Jewish tradition also applies Is 14:12 to the fall of Satan as Jesus Christ does, they cite: 2 Enoch 29:3 ...


2

Both references imply a vigorous washing. Mark 7:3 has πυγμή (fist) which suggests a vigorous washing hand of fist; the same word is used for 'boxing'. Luke 11:38 uses βαπτίζω, which has a history of referring to not just washing, but serious, vigorous dipping, used for drowning, or drunkenness (like in English we might say 'sodden' for someone who is ...


2

According to the Luke-Acts, the sign of the Spirit is an open mouth in witness and praise. Jesus says in Acts 1:8, But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit comes on you; and you will be my witnesses… And this is what we find in Luke and Acts. Those who are filled or receive or have the Holy Spirit come upon them open their mouths in witness ...


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It is probably easier to address the questions in reverse order. Question 2) Why the significant difference between the NA27 and TR in Matthew, but not in Luke? Comfort and Metzger both explain that the reading τέκνων most likely originated as a scribal emendation intended to harmonize this text with the parallel in Luke 7:35. Metzger for example ...


2

Regarding μισέω (miseó) Luke 14:26 uses the term μισέω in a context that reasonably shows its usage to be something other than "an adversarial emotion we recognize as 'hate.'" That is, it is used in a relative sense there, where Christ is comparing the fact that one ought to "detest" father, mother, wife, child, brother, sister, and their own self if any of ...



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