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I think the answer to your question is very simple: in verse 31 Jesus is referring to the disciples as a whole (ὑμᾶς, “you” plural), while in verse 32 he is addressing Simon/Peter (σύ, “thou” singular). You are aware, I trust, that in KJV the words “to have”, and the second “you” (in “to sift you as wheat”) are printed in italics, indicating that they are ...


A rhetorical response question would be, "Why would one think Act 2:36 is referring to Jesus being 'made Lord and Christ after the resurrection'?" This idea is reading more into Act 2:36 than is there. The ESV, and most translations, make the aorist indicative ἐποίησεν into "has made" (a perfective idea, a completed action). That is an interpretative move, ...

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