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22

There's a condition known as Hematidrosis, which has reportedly occurred in people other than Jesus. It could be metaphorical, but the "easy reading" of that passage suggests it's not, and I don't know that there's any outside sources to suggest that we shouldn't take it to mean he literally sweat blood.


16

The Greek word for robber in John 18:40 is λῃστής. This word is defined by Strong's Enhanced Lexicon this way: 3027 ἀρχιλῃστής, λῃστής [lestes /lace·tace/] n m. From leizomai (to plunder);15 occurrences; AV translates as “thief” 11 times, and “robber” four times. 1 a robber, plunderer, freebooter, brigand. The Greek word used as murder here is ...


15

No, I don't think we are dealing with a case of "Oh, this doesn't line up with everything else Jesus said, therefore..." However, I will say we need the entirety of Luke 14 to make sense of this gnarly truth that Jesus is making. To start off, don't overlook the fact that Luke 14:26 includes more than family members - it also includes ourselves - If ...


14

According to the notes on the NET Bible: This is one of the hardest verses in the gospels to interpret. Various views exist for what generation means. (1) Some take it as meaning “race” and thus as an assurance that the Jewish race (nation) will not pass away. But it is very questionable that the Greek term γενεά (genea) can have this meaning. Two other ...


14

The Hebrew word שמיים (shamayim), which is translated into English, is what is known in Judaism as a כנוי (kinnui), or a "substitute," "nickname." The reason why Matthew uses "kingdom of Heaven" more often than "kingdom of God" is because he wrote to a Jewish audience, and the Jews did not pronounce the Tetragrammaton יהוה, and sometimes not even the word ...


13

One thing to remember here is that Luke was a physician. He knew (should have known?) his symptoms. This does not preclude the metaphoric interpretation, but it does give the literal interpretation a lot more credence in this case. Even if it was not something he had seen before, it makes it far less likely that he would describe it this way in error.


11

There have been several proposed reconciliations of the Matthew and Luke genealogies. Among the popular ones are: Matthew's genealogy traces legal heirs; Luke's traces biological ancestors. Matthew's genealogy traces the ancestry of Joseph; Luke's traces the ancestry of Mary. This view takes the phrase "as was supposed of Joseph" in 3:23 as a parenthetical ...


11

There are two possible reasons why 'they were signing' (ἐνένευον) to him in Luke 1:62: Zechariah was mute and deaf. While there is no indication that the angel Gabriel brought about anything other than muteness,1 v. 22 states that he remained κωφός, which in addition to referring to a "lack of speech capability," can also imply a "lack of hearing ...


11

The wise men came after baby Jesus was presented in the temple. If you see a harmony of the Gospels, like Study Resources :: Harmony of the Gospels, you will find that the wise men came long after Jesus was presented in the temple. Presentation in the temple A woman who bore a son was ceremonially unclean for forty days (twice that if she bore a daughter ...


10

The NET Bible includes this textual criticism note: Several important Greek mss (Ì75 א1 A B N T W 579 1071*) along with diverse and widespread versional witnesses lack 22:43-44. In addition, the verses are placed after Matt 26:39 by Ë13. Floating texts typically suggest both spuriousness and early scribal impulses to regard the verses as historically ...


10

Was the Luke of Colossians the author of Luke/Acts? Probably. As the two volumes do not themselves include the author's name, we can't be sure that the author was named Luke at all. However, Luke is only mentioned 3 times in Paul's letters and there is no indication there that he was a particularly prominent personage. Therefore, any external evidence ...


10

The Greek word ἀλώπηξ (alopex, fox) appears in the Septuagint (LXX) and other early literature. In western culture the word has long signified craftiness or cleverness, and this meaning had even come to be associated with the Greek word by the first century. However, it is not likely that Jesus spoke this phrase in Greek. According to the NET translators: ...


10

It is very important to keep in mind that we have no manuscripts of Macion's gospel and no translations of it. Furthermore, we have no extant neutral or pro-Marcion commentaries. The two commentaries we have, by Tertullian and Epiphanius, have a strongly anti-Marcion agenda, furthermore they disagree with each other at some key points. This makes saying ...


9

Popular interpretations as to what event is anticipated by "the kingdom of God" coming in power include the following: The transfiguration The resurrection The ascension The day of Pentecost The second coming A couple things stand out in the passage that are worth noting. First, Jesus has just given indication that the disciples may end up soon ...


9

I decided to build a canonical answer to this question, since it seemed that all three answers had something to offer. Greek and Hebrew The Hebrew word yare (Strongs H3372) carries a number of meanings. There is both the definition being "terrified" or "afraid" along with the definition of having "reverence", "awe", or "respect". In Greek, the word ...


9

While punctuation did not exist in the original manuscripts, there are good reasons for preferring in our translations the rendering, "Verily I say unto thee, today shalt thou be with me in paradise." Here are several arguments in support of this conclusion: In "I say unto thee today," the word "today" is rather superfluous. Quite clearly Jesus is talking ...


9

If there is a contradiction at all between Paul's tradition and the tradition of the Gospel writers, it can be resolved as a text critical issue here in 1 Corinthians 11:24. Most of the early manuscripts simply have Τοῦτό μού ἐστιν τὸ σῶμα τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν - "This is my body, which is for you." The short phrase τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν also appears in 2 Corinthians 9:3, ...


8

---- Answer just looking at Luke 14:26 ---- According to Thayler's lexicon, (as I understand (in the below scan) .. people in the culture were really much like modern Italians and Greeks, and it was common to both love and hate something at the same time, so the greek word used could be interpreted 'love less than': Also from Vine's Expository Dictionary ...


8

The similar command in Matthew 10:37 shows that the ancient world understood this saying of Jesus to be not complete hatred (37 "Anyone who loves their father or mother more than me is not worthy of me; anyone who loves their son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me"). There is no reason to assume an Aramaic source for the Gospels based on this ...


8

Their responses seem similar and I don't believe it's possible to examine the language and come with the phrasing that leads to the rebuke. His mirrors Gen 15:8 which is not received as harshly. In comparison with Mary's response while hers seems more technical ("How is this going to happen?" - which perhaps implies a belief in something supernatural ...


8

Actually, I don't know of any Christian denomination or individual that tithes according to the Torah of Moshe. Tithing (עישור) is a relatively complicated process in Judaism, and of course, it's hardly (if at all) practical without a Temple. If Jews cannot tithe without the Temple, then Christians certainly cannot. With that being said, the general concept ...


8

Some say the "Kingdom of Heaven" refers to the a physical/political kingdom on earth while the "Kingdom of God" is the spiritual, coming reign of Christ. Arguments against the two being the same often come down to hair splitting and misinterpretation of verses. For example, the site listed above relies on a single verse in an attempt to say they are ...


7

This one line "Where there is a dead body, there the vultures will gather." is an idiom. This would be the equivalent of saying, "Where there's smoke, there's fire." Long answer: Luke 17:31-37 31 On that day no one who is on the housetop, with possessions inside, should go down to get them. Likewise, no one in the field should go back for ...


7

To build on blundin's answer, the most likely sense of the word in this context is "brigand". The NET Bible includes this footnote: It is possible that Barabbas was merely a robber or highwayman, but more likely, given the use of the term ληστής (lhsth") in Josephus and other early sources, that he was a guerrilla warrior or revolutionary leader. See ...


7

I've often heard that 'fear' as in 'fear the LORD' should not be understood to be 'fear' as in 'afraid', but rather 'awe' and 'reverence'. But myself, I want to be cautious about watering down the 'fear' as in 'afraid' side, because: I feel a sort of cultural pressure to do so which I think I then read back into the bible There are usages that clearly ...


7

The word used for broken in 1 Corinthians 11:24 is κλάω, which according to Strong's is used specifically the breaking of bread, while in John 19:36, συντρίβω (shatter, break in pieces) is used. The Interpreter's Bible, when commenting on 1 Corinthians 11:24 says of the use of broken: This may be an interpretive gloss, as most modern editors of the ...


7

Jesus always uses the mustard seed to represent something small. The mustard seed was popularly known to be the smallest of all seeds.1 Of course, it also has the property of being a seed (i.e. it germinates), but that part of the metaphor is not unique to being a mustard seed. There is no record of Jesus using any other of the mustard seed's unique ...


7

Tithing was an institute of the Mosaic Law and consisted of agricultural produce and reared livestock (Lv 27:30-33). The Israelites offered the tithe to the landless Levites who in turn offered a tenth of the tithe to the Aaronic priesthood (Nm 18:26-28). Unlike the other tribes, the Levites were denied any inheritance or land ownership in Israel. They were, ...


7

Bruce M. Metzger writes in Bibliotheca Sacra 150 (July-September 1993) (pp 277–278): The great majority of these hapax legomena occur also in other Greek sources, and so the meaning of most of them is not often in dispute. The meaning, however, of a word in the Lord's Prayer as recorded in Matthew 6:11 and Luke 11:3 has often been debated. Does ...


7

The Greek word in question, εντος, means 'inside' or 'within'. Surprisingly, despite being a typical word in Greek, is used only twice in the New Testament: here in Luke 17.21, and over in Matthew 23.26, where it refers to the 'inside' of a cup. Translating εντος as 'within' is more accurate, but also fits the context better; in this text, Jesus argues ...



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