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9

I think you have it right there in the difference between what you quoted - the Lord's Prayer doesn't say "do not tempt us" (and James agrees as to why) and James does not say "God does not allow people to be dragged away and enticed" (which would make the world a very different place). A prominent example of God explicitly allowing someone to be tempted is ...


7

The Greek word is οπηειλεμα(3783), which according to Strong's means 1) that which is owed 1a) that which is justly or legally due, a debt 2) metaph. offence, sin The word comes from οπηειλο(3784): 1) to owe 1a) to owe money, be in debt for 1a1) that which is due, the debt 2) metaph. the goodwill due So a literal translation would be "debt", ...


7

Bruce M. Metzger writes in Bibliotheca Sacra 150 (July-September 1993) (pp 277–278): The great majority of these hapax legomena occur also in other Greek sources, and so the meaning of most of them is not often in dispute. The meaning, however, of a word in the Lord's Prayer as recorded in Matthew 6:11 and Luke 11:3 has often been debated. Does ...


5

We have no records of the word being used prior to the Lord's prayer. The NET Bible translates: 6:11 Give us today our daily bread They then note that other potentially valid translations would include “Give us bread today for the coming day,” or “Give us today the bread we need for today.” Unfortunately, the Greek term appears only in early ...


3

The word used is the word for "debt" (as Jon states), but in rabbinic teachings and parables, a person's sin before God was often symbolized by debt owed to a king, landowner, or other person. An excellent example of this can be found in Matthew 18. Peter asks Jesus how often to forgive when a brother sins against him. Jesus responds with a parable about ...


2

Although I don't know which of the translations is the closest to the original, I did find the "...trespasses.." translation in The Book of Common Prayer on page 302-303


1

I think your question is theological and belongs elsewhere. However, your question contains a nugget of Hermeneutics. Also, I believe the accepted answer is mistaken. James is clearly stating that the Prayer recorded at Jesus' Sermon on the Mount should be amended or clarified. In Greek, he uses a nearly matching phrasing which he states that no person ...



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