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12

This answer draws on Michael J. Cahill, "Drinking Blood at a Kosher Eucharist? The Sound of Scholarly Silence", Biblical Theology Bulletin 32/4 (2002): 168-181. It should be consulted directly for full discussion and copious further references. OP: Wouldn't Jews be taken aback by the suggestion that they should drink blood? Yes, they would. OP: How ...


11

The other two answers do a good job of answering the question, but I thought it was worth pointing out the actual ban and its explanation: Leviticus 17:10 Explicitly makes your point for you; those who consume the blood of animals are cut off from the Jews, but then verse 11 explains the reason for the ban on blood of animals; drinking blood takes upon ...


10

The word used in verses 14, 17, and 18 is bətûlîm, “evidence(s) of virginity.” This is from bətûlâ, “virgin”, which is used in verse 19 to describe a woman thus evidenced. It refers to the custom of retaining a blood-stained sheet or cloth from the bed where a marriage is consummated. The blood (dam betulim) is said to “prove” the bride’s virginity as it ...


6

Jesus had aleady shocked his followers with references to drinking blood in John Chapter 6. "For My flesh is true food, and My blood is true drink" When leads to.. As a result of this many of His disciples withdrew and were not walking with Him anymore. I think we can infer that by the time of the Last Supper, any disciples who had a problem with ...


5

Although Paul does not use the same word for 'abolish' as Jesus in Matthew 5:17, I think it helpful to bear that verse in mind, as Paul did not intend to contradict what Jesus says: 17“Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth ...


5

Commentators generally see this as a reference to the Mosaic laws forbidding blasphemy. For example, Barnes' Notes, the Pulpit Commentary, the Cambridge Bible and Ellicott's Commentary see it this way. Whoever blasphemes the name of the LORD shall surely be put to death. All the congregation shall stone him. The sojourner as well as the native, when he ...


4

In John 1:17, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) states, ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωσέως ἐδόθη ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο which is translated as, since the Law was given by Moses; grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. It would seem as though the author is contrasting the Law with grace and truth and ...


4

It is mostly irrelevant whether the perpetrator of a crime has one eye or two, because Exodus 21:23-25 are referring to monetary penalties, except in the case of murder. Here is the text from Exodus 21:23-25, all three verses of which are important in understanding the answer to your question: 23: אִם אָסוֹן יׅהְיֶה וְנָתַתָּה נֶפֶשׁ תַּחַת נָפֶשׁ 24: ...


3

"μετατιθεμένης"(metatithemenes-being changed) is from "metatithemi" passive of an office the mode of conferring which is changed, Hebrews 7:12; 71 τί εἰς τί, to turn one thing into another (τινα εἰς πτηνην φύσιν,(from Thayer's Lexicon) This is Aorist passive; the Law itself has not changed, but the 'object of change'(High Priesthood of Christ) ...


3

This is a good question, and touches on a number of hermeneutical nuances. In order to bring out some of the subtleties which will underlie our answer, I'd like to begin by reviewing a number of key assumptions inherent in the question itself. Assumption 1: The disciples were Jews It is true that the disciples were of Israelite descent and had grown up ...


3

Scriptural context must be the primary driver for the answer, particularly because this section starts with "therefore". Paul's admonition to "let no one pass judgment" springs forth from verses 2:1-15. In 2:1-5, he desires to visit them "face-to-face" so that they may have a "...full assurance of understand and the knowledge of God's mystery, which is ...


2

It depends on your definition of gleaning, and what time of year they were doing it. Gleaning is supposed to be done by the poor after the harvesters have gone through the field and gathered in the harvest. From wikipedia: According to the Holiness Code and the Deuteronomic Code of the Torah, farmers should leave the corners of their fields ...


2

To translate the so-called "exceptive clauses" of Matthew 5:32 and 19:9 as "unless the marriage is unlawful" (i.e., invalid) is a good translation, although it is not a faithful word-for-word translation. The word used in Greek is πορνεία (porneia), which means anything related to prostitutes and sexual immorality (wantonness, uncleanliness, impure ...


1

Translations always provide issues. What it says in a less directly-translated manner is "the Torah and commandment". Tracing back to the original: 'The Law' = תורה = 'the Torah' 'The Commandment' = מצוה = 'commandments' The meaning then is that all of the 613 commandments in the Torah (the Law), derive from the ten commandment in some manner, according ...


1

Clarifications The passage is not primarily referring to dedicating "oneself" (per the quote by Matthew Henry in the OPs original question), and so the musing why not just donate the money or equivalent to begin with instead of vowing oneself and then redeeming oneself is not primarily relevant (but more on that in a moment). Verse 2 makes this ...


1

Yes, the question is rhetorical, expecting the negative response, but no, this does not suggest Paul thinks that God is unconcerned about animals or that this Old Testament passage was originally about Apostles. Paul was attempting to draw the reader's attention to an Old Testament passage which clearly teaches the same principle Paul was trying to teach ...


1

The law given to Moses at Sinai was abrogated with the advent of the new covenant. To put it a better way: The entirety of the Mosaic Covenant was fulfilled in Christ. The law of Moses no longer serves as direct and immediate judge over the lives and conduct of God's people. God's children today obey the Law of Christ [Gal 6.2, 1 Cor 9:21]. Jesus, who is ...


1

They are all male names. You can check this through the use of Biblical encyclopedias and dictionaries that will list the uses of the name elsewhere in the Bible. A combination of Easton's Bible Dictionary and the ISBE would suffice. Examples of preliminary results for the first four names are as follows: Mattithaia, male: (1 Chronicles 25:3, 21) Shema, ...


1

What is the meaning of Sabbaths in Colossians 2:16? First, the correct translation is the plural. Some translations have "Sabbath Day." Since Paul chose to use the plural, that is the right way to study it. Leviticus 23 is a good place to begin a study on the Sabbaths. This chapter describes all of the appointed times. The most frequent is the weekly ...


1

Some things to consider.... Lawlessness in the bible is also translated as transgressors, godless, without law, offense, wickedness, evildoers, guilty... John 12:49 For I have NOT SPOKEN on My own, but the Father Himself who sent Me has given Me a command as to what I should say and what I should speak. Deuteronomy 18:18 I will raise up for them a PROPHET ...


1

Pharisees took Sabbat very seriously. Yet they put often form over the content. They definitely counted their steps to avoid rules transgression. They surely avoided to go under Roman roof to make themselves unclean. However Jesus was seen by them as an enemy, heretic and polical risk. So they had urge to fix the treat they percieved. In Jerusalem of that ...


1

Does this passage describe the crime of rape? Yes, Deuteronomy 22:28-29 describes what's known today as rape. If so, does this passage describe the all punishment the man will endure? Yes. The man just has to pay a fine to the virgins father for lowering her property value. She's now 'used goods'. If so, how does this represent justice for ...



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