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10

My reading of the Gospels—especially Mark—is that Jesus operated in grey territory from the perspective of human authority. For instance, right at the beginning of his ministry, the people were amazed at his authority: And they were astonished at his teaching, for he taught them as one who had authority, and not as the scribes. —Mark ...


10

In the Hebrew Scriptures, death was "dirty." For example, contact with anything dead (whether animal or man) made the Israelite unclean in the ritual sense. Thus any scavenger was not appropriate for human consumption, since such animals consumed the refuse and/or carcasses of other animals. Only animals who chewed the cud (and split the hoof) were consumed ...


7

In the preceding and following verses, Paul talks about something 'written with ink', '[written] on tablets of stone', 'the letter', 'the ministry of death, carved on tablets of stone', 'the ministry of condemnation', and 'the old covenant / Moses' which has a 'veil'. These are all in contrast to '[written] with the spirit of the living God', '[written] on ...


6

It's a great question, and the truth is that the sentence is fairly ambiguous despite attempts to translate it otherwise (as in the ChaBaD translation brought in @crownjewel82's answer). Here's the verse - note that the closest we get to punctuation are the cantillation marks, which have a zaqef qaton (a minor disjunctive, like a comma or semicolon) at the ...


5

וְשֶׂ֣רֶט לָנֶ֗פֶשׁ לֹ֤א תִתְּנוּ֙ בִּבְשַׂרְכֶ֔ם וּכְתֹ֣בֶת קַֽעֲקַ֔ע לֹ֥א תִתְּנ֖וּ בָּכֶ֑ם אֲנִ֖י יְהוָֽה Grammatically speaking, "the dead" isn't even mentioned in the original Hebrew text. It was simply "the soul." In Hebraic thought, the soul is the unified body and spirit. The soul can be dead, or the soul can be alive. The text doesn't say one ...


5

The evidence strongly suggests that when New Testament authors refer to scripture, or say "it is written", they are referring to pre-Christian Jewish sacred writings and not what is now the New Testament. The one possible exception is the author of 2 Peter. (I hesitate to say "Hebrew Bible" for three reasons. First, most of them use the Septuagint ...


5

This test has many dimensions to it. It has little to do with the guilt or innocence of the woman. In order for the test to apply, the woman must become foolish. This has been interpreted to mean that she has aroused her husband's jealousy by flirting. Or she has aroused the suspicion of witnesses to her flirting, but they have not witnessed adultery, and ...


5

I think this is a clear Matthean addition: And he said to them, “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her, and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.”—Mark 10:11-12 (ESV) “Everyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery, and he who marries a woman divorced ...


5

To Fulfill To fulfill the law means to complete it in every aspect. The Greek word is πληρῶσαι (lexical form πληρόω). Τελειόω is a synonym; it has a sense of bringing something to completeness in its end, in its finality. Πληρόω has the sense of to complete something in fullness. And this sense indeed applies to Jesus' fulfillment of the law: it was not a ...


5

Some possible meanings: The Old Testament - particularly the legal and sacrificial systems - are types (examples, shadows, mirrors) of Christ. In other words, they point to some aspect of His ministry or work. From Paul's writings in Romans, the Law brings death so that we grasp the life found in Christ as both a satisfaction and a contrast. The prophets ...


5

Though Jesus was called 'Rabbi' the term was used in it's primitive meaning of 'great' one. He was not formally educated as a Rabbi[1] and had no earthly credential to teach as one, and certainly no man made institution gave him authority. He claimed it as his own Father's house [2], and they were unwilling to challenge him on it. [1] Joh 7:15 And the ...


4

What it means for Jesus to 'fulfill the law' in Matthew 5:17 is what it means in context, nothing more nothing less. I will argue that Matthew is looking forward to the rest of chapter 5 where he expands and explains what he begins to talk about in 5:17: Matthew 5:17-20 begins a section that ends with the final verse of chapter 5: 17“Do not think that I ...


4

νόμος in Paul is almost always Mosaic Law (though probably not in Romans 7 when he finds within himself a "law"). However, not all authors use the same words the same way. Even from above we can see that authors don't even use the same word the same way, though they may exhibit patterns. So, to hold John up to the requirement of using νόμος to refer to ...


4

Jesus had the legal authority to cleanse the temple not because he was a rabbi but because he claimed to be like Solomon, the "Son of David" and thus the builder of God's house (2 Samuel 7). This is evident from a careful reading of the gospels through the lens of the Hebrew Bible. In the synoptics the temple cleansing is immediately preceded by Jesus' ...


4

[Summarized from Brad Young's Jesus, the Jewish Theologian, pp. 114-116.] Divorce and remarriage are permitted under Jewish law, and Jesus did not prohibit the two acts. However, many Christians have made divorce and remarriage for any reason the same as adultery. There are even Christian denominations which do not allow their ministers to be remarried (the ...


4

I propose that "the letter of the law" is meant to indicate any [finite] approximation of Law, whereas "the spirit of the law" is meant to indicate Law itself—how things actually work, down to the smallest detail. We read in Romans 10:4, For Christ is the telos of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. The translations of telos are ...


3

We find even within scripture that there existed a heathen practice of cutting the flesh as part of an attempt to appeal to the gods, a kind of unholy sacrifice if you will. So they shouted louder and slashed themselves with swords and spears, as was their custom, until their blood flowed. (NIV 1 Kings 18:28) There are other references to cuttings ...


3

Good question. One possibility is that you are complaining that the law has not properly judged and punished this brother. Think of how the elder brother begrudged his father's forgiveness of the prodigal when he returned. But I suspect we are missing something about Jewish legal interpretation here. The Law (Torah) is holy, the word of God, and by ...


3

very nice human rationalizations, but none of these reasons is given in the Hebrew bible, because the simple reason is that this is a commandment from God. If a reason were given, then a person might come along some time later and give his own take on why that reasoning no longer applies as we see above. The same reasoning can be applied to all ...


2

I hope somebody that really heard this interpretation explains it. I haven't heard it. But I will make a guess (and I could be completely wrong) that this is part of a very speculative escatological interpretation that in some way relates to Daniel 9:24-25 where "seven weeks" are mentioned. I believe that it really is to twist this passage to try to ...


2

Here are some examples I found: Exd 31:14 Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you: every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off from among his people. Exd 31:15 Six days may work be done; but in the seventh is the sabbath of rest, holy to the LORD: ...


2

The translation from chabad.org makes things a bit clearer. The Hebrew text is available there as is a commentary on the text. You shall not make cuts in your flesh for a person [who died]. You shall not etch a tattoo on yourselves. I am the Lord. It's easy to see that there are two separate sentences containing two distinct commands. The first is ...


2

This is part of a series of illustrations on interpreting the law[1] We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but ...


2

The context indicates that the people are still judged -- thus, some transgression must still be "charged" or "accounted" to them. Look and the verse after it: Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses [since death happened, there must be sin and transgression], even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam [Adam sinned against a specific ...


2

Pork is/was prohibited because swine can't sweat and any poisonous substance it may have eaten will be stored in the fat of the animal: Another issue with the pig is that it doesn’t have any sweat glands. Sweat glands are a tool the body uses to be rid of toxins. This leaves more toxins in the pig’s body.


2

Scriptural context must be the primary driver for the answer, particularly because this section starts with "therefore". Paul's admonition to "let no one pass judgment" springs forth from verses 2:1-15. In 2:1-5, he desires to visit them "face-to-face" so that they may have a "...full assurance of understand and the knowledge of God's mystery, which is ...


1

Pork or rare meat was forbidden in the Bible, because for a simple hygienic reasons from long ago times when especially in the South, in hot countries and the desert you had no cooling or a veterinarian who told you the pork was healthy and free of any parasites. But some religions have made an iron law out of it. E.g. in Jewish and Islamic law pork is one ...



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