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Because it is not the Same Key(s) Being Referenced The "key of the house of David" (Isaiah 22:22 LXX, Brenton) and "key of David" (Rev. 3:7, ESV) are referring to the same "key" (singular), the same concept. But "the keys to the kingdom of heaven" (Matt. 16:19, ESV) is not the key of David. To equate the two would probably be similar to (and this is from ...


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Many scholars think that Luke is referring to Aramaic or at the very least that it's ambiguous. For example, the NET Bible just translates it directly as "Aramaic," while the ESV translates it as "Hebrew" but has a note "Or the Hebrew dialect (probably Aramaic)." The issue here is less one of a "language family" as that "Hebrew" also refers to the Jewish ...


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That there was a Greek word for Aramaic (Suristi) and Luke chooses to use the word for Hebrew in these places (tae Hebraidi dialectow) implies that he meant Hebrew instead of Aramaic. Paul, being a Pharisee and trained by Rabban1 Gamaliel the Elder, would certainly know Hebrew. My answer here shows from literature and archeology that Mishnaic Hebrew was ...



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