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25

Palestine at the time of Jesus was something of a crossroads for culture and language. It's entirely possible a young man growing up in the region would have been exposed to at least four different languages: Greek, Aramaic, Latin, and Hebrew. Aramaic Far and away the most common language that Jesus is quoted in is Greek. But that seems largely due to the ...


12

Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for ...


8

Most of the answers so far are getting all hung up over very specific examples of morphological analysis. It is by far better to start with the basic notion of "morphological analysis", then look at how each of these instances already mentioned meet the goals of morphological analysis. Morphological analysis means exactly what the etymology suggests: it is ...


6

Using a Greek Lexicon, I was able to find that this same word is used in the Septuagint (LXX). This passage makes it seem that it is not offensive (Ecclesiasticus – Sirach): 27:4 As when one sifteth with a sieve, the refuse remaineth; so the filth of man in his talk. 27:4 ἐν σεισματι κοσκινου διαμενει κοπρια οὑτως σκυβαλα ἀνθρωπου ἐν λογισμω αὐτου ...


5

A simple way to explain the RMAC (Robinson's Morphological Analysis Codes) is that words in the Greek language changed ('morph'-ed) their form depending on how they were being used (and therefore to be understood) in a given context. We do this same thing with many of our own words: give, given, giver, gave; have, has, hasn't, had; go, going, gone, went, ...


5

That there was a Greek word for Aramaic (Suristi) and Luke chooses to use the word for Hebrew in these places (tae Hebraidi dialectow) implies that he meant Hebrew instead of Aramaic. Paul, being a Pharisee and trained by Rabban1 Gamaliel the Elder, would certainly know Hebrew. My answer here shows from literature and archeology that Mishnaic Hebrew was ...


4

Ben Witherington in The Gospel of Mark: A Socio-Rhetorical Commentary (pp. 18-9) documents a number of stylistic traits of Mark's Gospel: Historical present tense verbs Repetition of phrases Impersonal plural verb followed by a singular verb First-person plural narrative Parenthetical clarifications γάρ-clauses Anacoluthon Paratactic καί Aramaic phrases ...


3

Because it is not the Same Key(s) Being Referenced The "key of the house of David" (Isaiah 22:22 LXX, Brenton) and "key of David" (Rev. 3:7, ESV) are referring to the same "key" (singular), the same concept. But "the keys to the kingdom of heaven" (Matt. 16:19, ESV) is not the key of David. To equate the two would probably be similar to (and this is from ...


3

I do not think that obscenities/profanities can be pigeon-holed. There is no point in figuring out if σκύβαλον is an obscenity. From one era the N word is acceptable and the next it is offensive. From one period calling someone a dyke is offensive but in recent years it is celebrated by those who accept a certain life-style. Is it considered offensive to ...


3

First, the four words in Greek and their primary Strong' definition: didaskalia <1319>: "teaching, instruction" elegchos <1650>: "a proof, that by which a thing is proved or tested" epanorthosis <1882>: "restoration to an upright or right state" paideia <3809>: "the whole training and education of children (which relates to the cultivation of ...


3

This statement by Ehrman that Jesus and the disciples did not speak Greek confuses me. Judea was at the crossroads of three continents. They had been under varying amounts of foreign rule for centuries-foreign rulers who spoke Greek. Greek was the lingua franca of Jesus' day (the trading language spoken by people of different countries). Even the Romans ...


2

This is far from a complete answer, but I thought I'd add a few notes on what I've found so far to potentially help anyone else who tries to figure out what morphological analysis in bible study is for, until we get some more answers. I found the term "morphological analysis" when I was re-installing e-Sword and noticed a plugin tool called "Robinson's ...


2

I think there could be many hypothesis: Aramaic was also a language of divine worship and the bible, so using that language could evoke that connection in a way that use of Greek couldn't. Mark evidently wants to preserve this. We know that translating parts of the bible into Aramaic predated Christianity (Philip Alexander Aramaic Bible 17A Canticles: ...


2

There was lots of writing going on in the second millennium BC; The Egyptians were writing in Egyptian on papyrus and stone; the Babylonians were writing in Akkadian on clay tablets and on stone; the people of Ugarit were writing in Ugaritic; the Hittites in Hittite; the Greeks in Mycenean Greek, and so on. The dating of Moses to around 1400 BC goes back ...


2

Lester L. Grabbe says in Ancient Israel, page 117 that there were no pre-eighth century alphabetic writings in the area of Israel and Judah, except for the Gezer calendar which was probably Canaanite, early Hebrew and Canaanite writings being very difficult to distinguish. The spread of alphabetic writing did not antedate the mid-eighth century and not a ...


1

Many scholars think that Luke is referring to Aramaic or at the very least that it's ambiguous. For example, the NET Bible just translates it directly as "Aramaic," while the ESV translates it as "Hebrew" but has a note "Or the Hebrew dialect (probably Aramaic)." The issue here is less one of a "language family" as that "Hebrew" also refers to the Jewish ...


1

I am shocked at the idea that these "stylistic traits" would "point to an author who struggles to express himself in the language he is writing. " Too many native speakers of the same Koine Greek Mark wrote have found NO such thing in his writing. Mark did not invent any of these traits, many of them are found often enough in Koine written by excellent ...


1

The methods of Sensus Plenior provide a mechanism by which such questions can be examined in more detail. This is a system for interpreting the 'dark sayings' or 'riddles' of the Bible. Such riddles interlock giving the interpreter clues from the greater context of the Bible to discern meaning in the passage being considered. We assume the author uses the ...



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