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14

To find a Latin word in an English edition of the Old Testament of the Bible is an anomaly, to say the least. We would expect to find two things in an English edition of the Hebrew Old Testament: English translations of essentially any Hebrew part of speech except proper nouns (names), including but not limited to adjectives, adverbs, common nouns, ...


13

Firmament The primary reason the word "firmament" has been updated in modern translation (using the term "changed" is incorrect - new translations start with the original language, not the KJV text) is because language changes. While the word was an ordinary one in 1611 meaning something like The arch or vault of heaven overhead, in which the clouds ...


10

The Idea in Brief The best translation in this passage is not “Lucifer” (or any similar translation with the image of the brightness of light), but instead “the one wailing aloud” falling from heaven. Discussion In the Masoretic Text the word הֵילֵל appears, but in the Dead Sea Scrolls the word appears instead as היליל. The following image (below) comes ...


5

This has been called "The Most Obscure Verse in Proverbs". Textual and/or translational uncertainties involve nearly every word in the verse1 and they are to some extent inseparable if we want to end up with a coherent proverb. However, the OP has specifically asked about the translation "archer", so I'll focus on that and only briefly mention some of the ...


5

It is hard to know how else to translate this idiomatically in English otherwise. Even sticking with the MT, the verb sequence makes it clear that 2:10-14 is an "offline" digression describing the one-into-four river (a bit unnatural, that). The "waw consecutives" (or past narratives or whatever you want to call them) make a continuous sequence, bracketing ...


4

This is a textual issue. Most important manuscripts (including Sinaiticus, Alexandrinus, and Vaticanus) contain αὐτῶν, unambiguously 3rd masculine plural (genitive). This is the reading of the Textus Receptus that you quote However, the Vulgate contains eius, the 3rd person singular genitive pronoun that may be either masculine or feminine. This reading, as ...


3

When the KJV and other Reformation-era English translations were written, Lucifer was already seen as a proper noun for Satan The OED gives five instances of Lucifer being used as a proper noun before the KJV was written: OE Christ & Satan 366 Wæs þæt encgelcyn ær genemned, Lucifer haten, leohtberende. a1300 Cursor Mundi 442 And for þat he ...


3

"Lucifer" is used in Bible translations even before the King James Version (circa 1611). The Geneva Bible uses it (circa 1599), as does the Coverdale Bible (circa 1535). So it appears many subsequent translations kept the Vulgate's "Lucifer" word for the Hebrew הֵילֵל (hêylêl). (Note: the following view is pure speculation on my part.) I would imagine ...


2

The word ἄρτιος (artios) is not found elsewhere in the New Testament or the Septuagint, but it is reasonably well-attested in Classical Greek literature; LSJ provides many examples. BDAG gives: pertaining to being well fitted for some function, complete, capable, proficient = able to meet all demands Although the word is a hapax within the Greek Bible, ...


2

"Doe of the Dawn" appears to be an accurate translation. אַיָּלָה (ʾayyālāh) means "doe". (Morphologically, it is the feminine of אַיָּל, meaning "deer.") The word in question, אַיֶּ֥לֶת (ʾayyelet), is the construct form: "doe of...". The following word שַׁ֫חַר (šaḥar) is a common word for "dawn." It is prefixed with the definite article making the whole ...


1

It is interesting that so many people think that Ezekiel 28:13 refers to Satan. The One Year Bible Companion says great care must be taken to read this passage with discernment. It says it is clear that Ezekiel describes this king in terms that could not apply to a mere man. Ezekiel may therefore have been condemning not only the king of Tyre, but Satan, who ...


1

This chapter of Isaiah is an encouraging account of how the Jews will return to the Land and, to be blunt, thumb their noses at the King of Babylon. Verse 4 says, "And you shall bear this parable against the king of Babylon, and you shall say, "How has the dominator ceased, has ceased the haughty one!" The razzing of the Babylonian king continues in the ...


1

For the old testament, the Septuagint was used over the Masoretic test, where the reading found in it supported traditional Christian doctrine, more so than the reading found in the Masoretic text i.e. Psalm 22:16 "they pierced my hands and my feet." To answer the second part of your question, the Septuagint predates the new testament, so it contains the ...


1

It looks as though the LXX (ἐκπορεύεται) and the Vulgata (egrediebatur) read the (obviously un-vocalised) יצא as 3rd sing. perfect. In the MT it is pointed as a participle, so if you are following the MT then yes, it would be more accurate to translate it in the present (“a river goes out”). Of course, the Tiberian pointing does not necessarily reflect the ...


1

Short Answer: Being "allotted a measure of faith" is just another way of saying that you've been "given a particular function in the Church". This is a great question. I think you were on the right track when you asked whether verse 3 is connected to verse 4. Yes it is! When seeking to understand a confusing verse, step 1 should always be to read it in ...



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