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This is a case where the argument for inauthenticity is quite clear. The Comma Johanneum does not appear in any ancient Greek sources (1 John, like all the other books of the New Testament, was written originally in Greek). The earliest Greek version of 1 John with the Comma Johanneum is from 1516! The extra line was added to some Latin manuscripts ...

I don't see any support in the text for this translation, but the variation is much older than KJV. According to Rashi the targum renders this "and did not cease". (Relatedly, in Gen 38:26 the targum doesn't but another source does, leading to a rather different understanding of Yehudah and Tamar.) I am not fluent in Aramaic and can't evaluate the targum ...

The one thing in this discussion that makes the most sense to me is the cultural component. It was intentional that Jesus used an Aramaic word against a Greek word which was puzzling. All the comparison in this chapter basically say "you know this is bad, but what you don't know this is just as bad". It make sense that 'in the culture' raca would put you ...