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11

Probably for continuity. The translation philosophy of the NKJV version was to essentially follow the original King James Version but update the language. They did realize that there was textual discrepencies. That particular passage included words found in later Greek editions of the text but not in earlier editions. Regarding textual discrepancies of ...


10

Many translations do use "And" or rephrase to avoid needing to insert a word there at all. The Majority Text looks like this: εγω δε λεγω υμιν οτι πας ο οργιζομενος τω αδελφω αυτου εικη ενοχος εσται τη κρισει ος δ αν ειπη τω αδελφω αυτου ρακα ενοχος εσται τω συνεδριω ος δ αν ειπη μωρε ενοχος εσται εις την γεενναν του πυρος I've bolded the word de ...


9

This is a case where the argument for inauthenticity is quite clear. The Comma Johanneum does not appear in any ancient Greek sources (1 John, like all the other books of the New Testament, was written originally in Greek). The earliest Greek version of 1 John with the Comma Johanneum is from 1516! The extra line was added to some Latin manuscripts ...


8

Short Answer: "Generally it is the only translation" (but it is complicated) First, there are two (three?) different words in the references you give. The Nephilim (נְפִילִים; a word only ever found in plural form in OT) only appears three times in Gen 6:4 and Num 13:33 (twice). The word in 1 Ch 20:8 (also 1 Ch 20:6 and 1 Ch 8:2; cf. also 1 Ch 4:12) is ...


5

Because of an edit made in your post, it is important to note that money itself is not being called the root of all evils (nor all sorts of evils) in this passage, it is the love of money that is problematic, as the edit to the question has clarified. With that said, 1 Timothy 6:10 is a difficult text to translate. A literal translation of the text would ...


5

I wouldn't say the 'but' is misleading here. You're right to relate this to his subsequent pronouncement on adultery vs lust. You can take the template as "You know X is bad, but Y which is precursor to it is just as bad". While anger or calling someone a name bad enough to be left untranslated may get you into legal or political trouble--and thus have ...


5

The KJV does not teach that preaching is foolish. The use of the word "foolish(ness)" here found in its context clears up the confusion. In verse 18 we read that the "preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness." The text isn't saying that it's actually foolishness, but that it is perceived to be this way by certain individuals. Verse 23 ...


4

The JPS translation is clearest here, as pointed out in the comments, so I’ll use it to illustrate my answer: “There are friends that one hath to his own hurt; but there is a friend that sticketh closer than a brother.” The original Hebrew is indispensable here: “אִישׁ רֵעִים, לְהִתְרֹעֵעַ; וְיֵשׁ אֹהֵב, דָּבֵק מֵאָח׃” Ish re‘im l’hithro‘eä‘; v’yesh ’ohev ...


4

I don't see any support in the text for this translation, but the variation is much older than KJV. According to Rashi the targum renders this "and did not cease". (Relatedly, in Gen 38:26 the targum doesn't but another source does, leading to a rather different understanding of Yehudah and Tamar.) I am not fluent in Aramaic and can't evaluate the targum ...


4

Those are adjectives, not pronouns. They are plural neuter nominatives. "And all those who are mine are yours, and all of yours are mine..." BibleHub is right. It does jive with the KJV: because they are adjectives and not pronouns, the plural they carry is the plural of the things they are modifying. In other words, they act like other plural adjectives. ...


3

The verse appears in the Masoretic Text and LXX as follows, respectively - Psalm 19:3 (MT) 3 אֵֽין־אֹמֶר וְאֵין דְּבָרִים בְּלִי נִשְׁמָע קֹולָֽם׃ The literal translation - There is no speech and there are no words: their voice is not heard. Psalm 19:1-3 (LXX) 3 οὐκ εἰσὶν λαλιαὶ οὐδὲ λόγοι ὧν οὐχὶ ἀκούονται αἱ φωναὶ αὐτῶν ...


3

About Another Possible Translation Your second question is: Is there any other translation possible from the Greek text beside that which the KJV translators produced? The clear answer to that has to be "yes," since many other translations do it: ESV: For surely it is not angels that he helps, but he helps the offspring of Abraham. NASB: ...


3

The forms you likely learned are pronouns: 1st person, singular number (equivalent to English "I," "me") ἐγώ μου, ἐμοῦ μοι, ἐμοἰ με, ἐμέ 2nd person, singular number (equivalent to English "you") σύ σου, σοῦ σοι, σοί σε, σέ However, the forms in John 17:10 are indeed adjectives, as Kazark mentioned, based on ...


3

Mat 14:17 And they say unto him, We have here but five loaves, and two fishes. Mar 6:38 He saith unto them, How many loaves have ye? go and see. And when they knew, they say, Five, and two fishes. Luk 9:13 But he said unto them, Give ye them to eat. And they said, We have no more but five loaves and two fishes Jhn 6:9 There is a lad ...


2

The one thing in this discussion that makes the most sense to me is the cultural component. It was intentional that Jesus used an Aramaic word against a Greek word which was puzzling. All the comparison in this chapter basically say "you know this is bad, but what you don't know this is just as bad". It make sense that 'in the culture' raca would put you ...


2

Proverbs 18:24 KJV: A man that hath friends must show himself friendly: and there is a friend that sticketh closer than a brother. NIV/ESV: A man of many companions may come to ruin, but there is a friend who sticks closer than a brother. There is another possible way to view the Hebrew here in that the key Hithpael-stem verb may mean "broken" in an ...


2

1 Tim 1:4 μηδε προσεχειν μυθοις και γενεαλογιαις απεραντοις αιτινες ζητησεις παρεχουσιν μαλλον η οικοδομιαν θεου την εν πιστει (textus receptus) 1 Tim 1:4 μηδὲ προσέχειν μύθοις καὶ γενεαλογίαις ἀπεράντοις αἵτινες ἐκζητήσεις παρέχουσιν μᾶλλον ἢ οἰκονομίαν θεοῦ τὴν ἐν πίστει (critical text) Because of the one-letter difference between a "d" and an "n", ...


2

This is a case of ambiguity in the translation, as some of the explanatory words like "where" or "which" are not present in the Hebrew. Unfortunately it is very hard to put into English without making a judgment about the details. See http://biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/19-3.htm to read an interlinear text and http://biblehub.com/psalms/19-3.htm to see a ...


1

There is much to be understood, before explaining what the testimony actually is; Since the Hebrews had been enslaved in Egypt they had forgotten how to serve God, and God; through Moses; was teaching them how he was to be worshipped. We must begin in the book of Exodus and build up to answering your question. All Scripture is quoted from the King James ...


1

Interesting question: the TR(Textus Receptus) version says, "θεὸς ἐμέρισεν μέτρον πίστεως" or "God has-allotted a-measure of-faith". This would seem to suggest that the "πίστεως" of the KJV, which was translated from the TR substituted "a" for "the", confirming your suspicions about whether the 'amount of faith' measured was measured according to one's ...



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