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Probably for continuity. The translation philosophy of the NKJV version was to essentially follow the original King James Version but update the language. They did realize that there was textual discrepencies. That particular passage included words found in later Greek editions of the text but not in earlier editions. Regarding textual discrepancies of ...

This is a case where the argument for inauthenticity is quite clear. The Comma Johanneum does not appear in any ancient Greek sources (1 John, like all the other books of the New Testament, was written originally in Greek). The earliest Greek version of 1 John with the Comma Johanneum is from 1516! The extra line was added to some Latin manuscripts ...

Many translations do use "And" or rephrase to avoid needing to insert a word there at all. The Majority Text looks like this: εγω δε λεγω υμιν οτι πας ο οργιζομενος τω αδελφω αυτου εικη ενοχος εσται τη κρισει ος δ αν ειπη τω αδελφω αυτου ρακα ενοχος εσται τω συνεδριω ος δ αν ειπη μωρε ενοχος εσται εις την γεενναν του πυρος I've bolded the word de ...

The KJV does not teach that preaching is foolish. The use of the word "foolish(ness)" here found in its context clears up the confusion. In verse 18 we read that the "preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness." The text isn't saying that it's actually foolishness, but that it is perceived to be this way by certain individuals. Verse 23 ...

I wouldn't say the 'but' is misleading here. You're right to relate this to his subsequent pronouncement on adultery vs lust. You can take the template as "You know X is bad, but Y which is precursor to it is just as bad". While anger or calling someone a name bad enough to be left untranslated may get you into legal or political trouble--and thus have ...

The JPS translation is clearest here, as Monica Cellio pointed out in the comments, so I’ll use it to illustrate my answer: “There are friends that one hath to his own hurt; but there is a friend that sticketh closer than a brother.” The original Hebrew is indispensable here: “אִישׁ רֵעִים, לְהִתְרֹעֵעַ; וְיֵשׁ אֹהֵב, דָּבֵק מֵאָח׃” Ish re‘im l’hithro‘e‘a; ...

I don't see any support in the text for this translation, but the variation is much older than KJV. According to Rashi the targum renders this "and did not cease". (Relatedly, in Gen 38:26 the targum doesn't but another source does, leading to a rather different understanding of Yehudah and Tamar.) I am not fluent in Aramaic and can't evaluate the targum ...

The one thing in this discussion that makes the most sense to me is the cultural component. It was intentional that Jesus used an Aramaic word against a Greek word which was puzzling. All the comparison in this chapter basically say "you know this is bad, but what you don't know this is just as bad". It make sense that 'in the culture' raca would put you ...