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12

This answer draws on Michael J. Cahill, "Drinking Blood at a Kosher Eucharist? The Sound of Scholarly Silence", Biblical Theology Bulletin 32/4 (2002): 168-181. It should be consulted directly for full discussion and copious further references. OP: Wouldn't Jews be taken aback by the suggestion that they should drink blood? Yes, they would. OP: How ...


11

The other two answers do a good job of answering the question, but I thought it was worth pointing out the actual ban and its explanation: Leviticus 17:10 Explicitly makes your point for you; those who consume the blood of animals are cut off from the Jews, but then verse 11 explains the reason for the ban on blood of animals; drinking blood takes upon ...


6

Paul state after his conversion that he is still Pharisee on two occasions Acts 23:6 Now when Paul perceived that one part were Sadducees and the other Pharisees, he cried out in the council, “Brothers, I am a Pharisee, a son of Pharisees. It is with respect to the hope and the resurrection of the dead that I am on trial.” Phil 3:5 ...


6

Jesus had aleady shocked his followers with references to drinking blood in John Chapter 6. "For My flesh is true food, and My blood is true drink" When leads to.. As a result of this many of His disciples withdrew and were not walking with Him anymore. I think we can infer that by the time of the Last Supper, any disciples who had a problem with ...


5

Commentators generally see this as a reference to the Mosaic laws forbidding blasphemy. For example, Barnes' Notes, the Pulpit Commentary, the Cambridge Bible and Ellicott's Commentary see it this way. Whoever blasphemes the name of the LORD shall surely be put to death. All the congregation shall stone him. The sojourner as well as the native, when he ...


3

This is a good question, and touches on a number of hermeneutical nuances. In order to bring out some of the subtleties which will underlie our answer, I'd like to begin by reviewing a number of key assumptions inherent in the question itself. Assumption 1: The disciples were Jews It is true that the disciples were of Israelite descent and had grown up ...


3

Early period The story of the standardization of the Hebrew Bible begins in late second Temple times, as evidenced by the Talmud (Ketubot 106a) attesting to scribes that were paid by the Temple to periodically compare the official scrolls to other copies and make corrections. Before this time, it is evident that significant variation in copies existed as ...


3

According to rabbinic sources, women, children, and slaves, are not required to fulfill any commandment which is classified as a "מצות עשה שהזמן גרמא" (mitzvat asei shehazman gerama), a positive commandment dependent on time: וכל מצות עשה שהזמן גרמה אנשים חיבין ונשים פטורות, וכל מצות עשה שלא הזמן גרמה אחד אנשים ואחד נשים חיבין. (Mishna Kiddushin 1:7, ...


2

Good question. Strictly speaking, we don't know how commonly held the belief was (as we do not have a huge number of documents from that exact time period, and certainly "opinion surveys" didn't exist then). However, the IVP Commentary does a good job of explaining the probable background based on rabbinic comments from the following centuries. I will ...


1

Was the LXX used in Palestine in the First Century? Yes. The Septuagint was used in Palestine in the 1st century. "The Jews made use of it [i.e the LXX] long before the Christian Era, and in the time of Christ it was recognised as a legitimate text, and was employed in Palestine even by the rabbis." (New Advent Catholic Encyclopedia).


1

As noted on this question, one option is that "us" may simply be a usage of the Royal "we" - basically God is talking to himself and it is simply a turn of phrase. More likely however is that "us" here refers to God and the Holy Spirit noted in Genesis 1:2 Now the earth was without shape and empty, and darkness was over the surface of the watery deep, ...



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