New answers tagged

2

No, it can not refer to Joseph. The phrase: τὸν πατέρα μου καὶ πατέρα ὑμῶν καὶ θεόν μου καὶ θεὸν ὑμῶν is an example of the so-called "TSKS" construction (= το-substantive-και-substantive), addressed most famously by the Granville Sharp Rule: When the copulative και connects two nouns of the same case....if the article ὁ, or any of its cases, ...


0

The question is taken from the second time Jesus had His life threatened in Jerusalem: At a feast of the Jews: But Jesus answered them, “My Father has been working until now, and I have been working.” Therefore the Jews sought all the more to kill Him, because He not only broke the Sabbath, but also said that God was His Father, making Himself equal ...


0

John and his brother James were sons of Zebedee and Galilean fishermen. The beloved disciple had access to the high priest's home and apparently was familiar with the upper social classes in Jerusalem. This would be highly unlikely for a Galilean since the Judeans looked upon anyone from Galilee as a hick. (Remember Peter being identified by his accent in ...


1

John of Damascus wrote: That which is comprehended in place or time or apprehension is circumscribed: while that which is contained by none of these is uncircumscribed. Wherefore the Deity alone is uncircumscribed, being without beginning and without end, and containing all things, and in no wise apprehended. For He alone is incomprehensible ...


0

I will try to answer from a Patristic perspective. Regarding your question, "Was 'this day' some time in eternity past; ie, 'from everlasting'? Or is it referring to a day in history?" as referred to in Psalm 2, I think the answer is yes to both. On the one hand, as Son of God, He is unoriginate. Augustine wrote in his "Discourse on Psalm 2": It is ...


1

I think your first answer - that He angered the Jews by alluding to the Tetragrammaton - is the correct one, and also one that agrees with the Patristic interpretation. John Chrysostom (4th century) commented: Seest thou how He proved Himself to be greater than Abraham? For the man who rejoiced to see His day, and made this an object of earnest ...


1

I will declare the decree: the LORD hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten (יְלִדְתִּֽיךָ) thee. (Psalm 2:7 KJV) The most common meaning of the verb יָלַד is to father or to give birth. There are other uses which do not involve child birth: Joseph saw Ephraim’s children to the third generation. The children of Machir, the son of ...


1

Virgin Birth? "And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (ὢν: being) as (ὡς: as, just as) was supposed (ἐνομίζετο: was supposed) the son of Joseph, which was the son of Heli" Luke 3:23 First, I think it's important to know who Yeshua's biological father was. According to trinitarian doctrine, Joseph is not the biological ...


1

As David explains the “other” is of the same type and Jesus Himself is a paraclete. Also Jesus says: I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you. (John 14:18 KJV) So just as Jesus and the Father are one; Jesus and the Holy Spirit are one. They are both comforters. The Comforter is also the Spirit of Truth: But when the Comforter is come,...


-2

The scriptures are perfectly consistent that when people die they do not ascend immediately to "heaven" (the sky, where God is) but instead go to Sheol/the ground and there they will be gathered together with their fathers: Gen_15:15 And thou shalt go to thy fathers in peace; thou shalt be buried in a good old age. This is no different in the NT and ...


-1

The fourth Gospel uses the word father 116 times. This is almost the same number of times that word is used in Matthew, Mark, and Luke combined. From this it is apparent that author was intent on making the most complete record of the meaning and use of "Father." If the author is taken literally, then it is clear that the Jewish people did not understand ...


-1

The semantic domain (the several usages) of πρός is given in BDAG. Notice the notes in the first paragraph: "expressing direction ‘on the side of’, ‘in the direction of’: w. gen. ‘from’, dat. ‘at’, or acc. (the most freq. usage in our lit.) ‘to’ (s. the lit. s.v. ἀνά. beg.) (Hom.+)." What these notes are saying is that depending on the case of ...


-1

I believe the author of John is saying... Ἐν(in) ἀρχῇ (first) [no definite article just like b'reshit in Genesis 1:1] ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason), καὶ (and) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) ἦν (was) πρὸς (moving towards) τὸ (the) θεόν (God), καὶ (and) θεὸς (divine) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) οὗτος (it) ἦν (was) ἐν (in) ἀρχῇ (first) πρὸς (moving ...


-1

Trinitarians readily admit that their definition of God is not explicitly taught anywhere in the scriptures. Not in the gospels, Paul, Moses, Peter, etc. In fact, they admit that the paradigm of three persons yet one God defies reason and refer to it as a profound divine mystery. The idea is that you can have any number of persons but if they are of the same ...


1

This is a great question as it forces a closer look at a familiar text. The evidence is strong that there are two "hours" being described in that the first is said to already have come while the other has clearly not yet occurred: “Truly, truly, I say to you, an hour is coming, and is now here, when the dead will hear the voice of the Son of God, and ...


1

Elaine Pagels says, in Beyond Belief, page 70, that she sees a principal objective of John's Gospel was to refute the beliefs of the Thomas Christians. It was John who created Doubting Thomas, and only John presents a challenging and critical portrait of the disciple he calls “Thomas, the one called Didymus”. John is portraying Thomas critically, and ...


0

The meaning of a word for a given author should be based first on how the author uses the word and how that usage is employed within their work. This author is purposeful to begin their work by using the same phrase 3 times: In the beginning was the Word (ὁ λόγος), and the Word (ὁ λόγος) was with God, and the Word (ὁ λόγος) was God. (John 1:1 NKJV) ...


0

I believe the author of John is saying... Ἐν(in) ἀρχῇ (first) [no definite article just like b'reshit in Genesis 1:1] ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason), καὶ (and) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) ἦν (was) πρὸς (moving towards) τὸ (the) θεόν (God), καὶ (and) θεὸς (divine) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) οὗτος (it) ἦν (was) ἐν (in) ἀρχῇ (first) πρὸς (moving ...


0

Yeshua addresses the Father, YHVH, as the only true God. The passage says... "These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee: As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him. And this is life ...


0

To understand the Trinity we start with the Two First there's God's Breath and God's Word. The Breath we call the Father, and the Word we call the Son. Then God's Word comes into the flesh representing the Son of Man. Meaning the Words that come out of Man's mouth. And explained that it was what came out of a man's mouth that makes a man unclean. Then God ...


-1

God shows a duality from his metaphors of Lightness and Darkness. Matt 6:22-24 Decoded Version Sinaiticus to English The vibes of one's body reflects the focus, if the focus is optimistic the whole body will be radiant with God's light. 23 But if the focus is pessimistic the whole body will be gloomy. Therefore if the light in you gloomy this is very ...


-1

To answer this correctly one must understand a few base concepts to get the true meaning. We must see the bigger picture as to why Jesus was crucified. Now lets think this through, Why would the most powerful creator, maker of everything, subject to no other authority, feel it necessary to come to the planet as a poor man get ridiculed, beaten, and killed ...


0

The connection between belief and being born again seems quite evident from John 1:12-13, in which it is written, 12 But all those who received him, he gave them power to become children of God, to those who believe in his name, 13 who were born, not of blood, nor of the will of flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. ΙΒʹ ὅσοι δὲ ἔλαβον αὐτόν ...


-1

To your original question, I am not sure how someone arrives at that conclusion. Jesus says, one can not see, in the Greek it means to know, or perceive. Strongs G1492 in the following manner: know (281x), cannot tell (with G3756) (8x), know how (7x), wist (6x), misc (19x), see (314x), behold (17x), look (5x), perceive (5x), vr see (3x), vr know (1x). How ...


1

In John's Gospel, Jesus sometimes tricked those who opposed him, by using double meanings that left his opponents confused. John 3:1-13 is an example of this. The trick depends on two of the quite different meanings that ἄνωθεν (anóthen) can have in the Greek language: Strong's 509: from above, from the beginning, again Tom Thatcher says ('The Riddles ...


4

The question is actually great. It prompts us to see John 17:3 in light of exegetical analysis. John 17:3 And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. John 17:3 is explicit that eternal life is knowing both the Father and the Son. Eternal Life is neither only the Father nor only the Son but ...


0

Interesting. Was pondering that this am and did Google search. Your post came up first. If you look at the context, the third thing is actually the fourth day. Starting in verse 19, the Pharisees couldn't confront John. Then it says the next day. So according to this the next day was the first day. What happened on the first day is the world became aware ...


0

The simpler reading is the best: Knowing God IS eternal life, which works well with the statement in 1 John 5 that "...you may know you HAVE eternal life..." One can complicate the statement, but there is no real reason to do so. "Consists of..." sure, but why complicate the text? ;-) The John 6:29 has the same structure, so again, read the simpler "the ...


-1

As rightly quoted from Joh 19:36, the author understood the relationship of Christ to the Passover lamb - it was to be cooked whole and not broken. This is supported by NT commentary where it describes Christ as being crucified, put to death and nailed to the cross. No other scripture (OT or NT) indicates that Christ's body was or required to be broken. ...


0

Most commentators suggest that ἄνωθεν means 'from God' in this context but, of course, it doesn't have to. A brief word search shows an number of meanings of this term. A few uses of ἄνωθεν Matt 27:51 At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. Luke 1:3 I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, ...


1

The author of the fourth canonical gospel (commonly referred to as "John") like all authors is wont to employ turns of phrases in a way that other authors are not inclined to do. This doesn't make the usage "wrong" but rather "stylistic". John's use of ἵνα as an explanatory infinitive (as in John 17:3) is example of his use of ἵνα that you would less likely ...



Top 50 recent answers are included