Tag Info

New answers tagged

1

A literal translation of the Greek would be "Amen I say to you." As @fumanchu notes, in John's gospel, it's always "Amen Amen I say to you." It seems to me that Jesus uses this phrase when speaking on his own authority - something that set him apart from other rabbis of his day. People found this astonishing - as Matthrew comments at the end of the sermon ...


7

Granville Sharp's first rule (p. 3) does not apply to John 20:28 because of the presence of the definite article before the second substantive (noun). καὶ ἀπεκρίθη Ὁ Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου Now, in regards to the sixth rule, Granville Sharp wrote (pp. 14-16): In response to the Socinian claim, he wrote, Except ...


0

Peter had witnessed the Lord's anguished cries for the removal of the cup in the olive grove and would resort to violence to fulfill his master's wishes; not fully understanding that His supplication had been resolved in submission to the Father. The conflict had given way to complete composure when His will was completely submerged in His Father's will, ...


1

Egerton may be to John what Q is hypothetically to Matt/Luke. Wikipedia cites Jon B. Daniels (The Complete Gospels): "... suggestions that the Egerton Gospel served as a source for the authors of Mark and/or John also lack conclusive evidence. The most likely explanation for the Egerton Gospel's similarities and differences from the canonical gospels is ...


0

John 21:20,24 says that the beloved disciple "wrote these words," and with the almost universal assumption that the Gospel of John was written by John son of Zebedee, that should answer the question. However, the gospel was originally anonymous, and Burton L. Mack says in Who Wrote the New Testament, page 215, that the Gospel was then attributed to the ...


2

In order to view the relevant "leaf" on P66, please click here. To view the complete transcript of this leaf, please click here. In order to view the relevant "leaf" on P75, please click here and view the large image at the bottom of the page. To view the complete transcript of this leaf, please click here. The brackets in the transcript supply suggested ...


2

In John 1:16, it is written, And we all received from his fullness, and grace in place of grace. καὶ ἐκ τοῦ πληρώματος αὐτοῦ ἡμεῖς πάντες ἐλάβομεν καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος Literary Context Of primary importance is the meaning of the Greek word τοῦ πληρώματος (lemma: τὸ πλήρωμα) in this context. The Greek word τὸ πλήρωμα occurs a total of 17 times ...


1

Most English Bible translations see this as "from his fullness' or something similar. In other words, it is not not fullness that is received, but grace from the Lord. I think the Bible in Basic English expresses this best (John 1:16): From his full measure we have all been given grace on grace. On translations such as this, 'fullness' is a ...


1

Short answer: The two disciples of John the Baptist seem to be Andrew (per John 1:40) and John the Apostle. John’s Gospel: One key point in trying to identify the two disciples of John the Baptist is that, in writing the fourth Gospel, John the Evangelist/Apostle never names himself. As Gill says, he “always chooses to conceal himself”. The only point in ...


1

Many commentaries suggest that "the other disciple" appears to have been John (that is, the author of the same Gospel). Some hold the view the disciple perhaps may have been Philip, or Thomas. The identity of the second of the Baptizer’s disciples is not mentioned in this pericope. Naturally a great deal of speculation has arisen as a result of this ...


3

Before reconciling the synoptic account, generally, with John's account, it is first necessary to reconcile the different versions of the synoptic account. In Mark 1:16, Jesus sees Simon and Andrew his brother casting a net into the sea and calls them to follow him, and that he will make them fishers of men. Later, in verses 1:29-30, he visits the house ...


0

Yes, at least one is. In John 1:37 the two disciples follow Jesus, then in 1:40: One of the two which heard John speak, and followed him, was Andrew, Simon Peter's brother. Andrew went and fetched his brother Simon and said (1:41), "We have found the Messiah." As for who the other disciple was, the gospel does not tell us, and it seems beyond ...


2

Tertullian, in Against Marcion, Book 2, Ch. 10 writes, This description, it is manifest, properly belongs to the transgression of the angel, and not to the prince's: for none among human beings was either born in the paradise of God, not even Adam himself, who was rather translated there; nor placed with a cherub upon God's holy mountain, that ...


2

I see the following translations from the BibleGateway.com translation of John 6:26: "Amen, amen I say to you": Douay-Rheims American Edition, New American Bible Revised Edition "Believe me": J. B. Phillips New Testament "For sure, I tell you": New Life Version "I assure you": Common English Bible, Holman Christian Standard Bible "I can guarantee this ...


5

I think we can make an educated, intelligent guess as to where Jesus was when the word came to him from Bethany that Lazarus was ill. First, we know that when Jesus received the word from Bethany that his friend Lazarus was ill, Jesus and his disciples were somewhere in Perea, engaging in what scholars call--fittingly enough--his Perean Ministry. They ...


2

In John 11:2, Jesus receives word that Lazarus is sick; John 11:6 still only refers to Lazarus as sick, although Lazarus could have died soon after the messengers left Mary and Martha. From this, the story implies that Jesus was at least one full day's walk away from Lazarus. John 10:40 places Jesus on the eastern side of the Jordan River, a location ...



Top 50 recent answers are included