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Wikis, There are generally 3 views held for this question: Jesus spoke to Mary, acting, as it were, as the High Priest fulfilling the Day of Atonement (Lev. 16). Having accomplished the sacrifice, He was on His way to present the blood in heaven (after being in the heart of the earth 3 days), and, between the meeting with Mary in the garden and the ...


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Jesus is the "only begotten God." No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him. John 1:18 (NASB) He alone is "begotten" from the Father's "womb" ,that is, in His own being. With thee is the principality in the day of thy strength: in the brightness of the saints: from the womb ...


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The context of the texts in question speaks of a mutual indwelling ( Perichoresis) of the Father and the Son.What this shows is that they are one in power or ability and hence, of same essence. In John 10:38, Jesus said to the Jews to believe the works so that they might know and understand that he is in unity with the Father in terms of nature ( set of ...


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The topic of marriage is not a change in subject. Jesus conversation with the Samaritan woman is all about marriage. Here are four things most interpreters miss or simply don’t want to talk about. Jesus is a Bridegroom Jesus encounter with the woman by the well comes immediately after John the Baptist calls Jesus the “bridegroom.” Read John 3:28-30: ...


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Jesus asks her to call her husband to demonstrate his power. He knows that she will tell him she has no husband, and so it's simply a setup for him to prove that he has divine power because he already knows everything about her life. It just so happened that he chose the subject of her marriage, but he could have just as easily asked about something else ...


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Jesus speaks of "born of water " (i.e. H20) as recorded in John 3:5. John 3:5 ( NIV) Jesus answered, "Very truly I tell you, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless they are born of water and the Spirit. We must know what sort of water is this. Literal H20 ? or Metaphorical H20 ? The interesting fact is that the Bible never speaks of a ...


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As good as word studies can be, potentially at least, sometimes an overly thorough word study can over-complicate what is perhaps a relatively simple meaning. This might be one of those times. First, an analogy. There was a father who sat his son down one day for a heart to heart talk. Unbeknownst to his son, the dad had witnessed recently his son doing and ...


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John 9 1-22 Gk typhlon τυφλὸν blind Adj-AMS 1537 [e] ek ἐκ from Prep 1079 [e] genetēs γενετῆς. birth. http://biblehub.com/text/john/9-1.htm 6When he had thus spoken, he spat on the ground, and made clay of the spittle, and anointed his eyes with the clay, 7and said unto him, Go, wash in the pool of Siloam (which is by ...


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It is worth noting that in the Greek on both occasions this phrase is in fact two phrases both of which are governed by the preposition 'ἐν' the conjunction that links them seems to suggest that they should be juxtaposed that is these phrase are being deliberately placed together in this fashion for comparison or contrast. The comparison is the the ...


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In eschatological terminology, the last day is that specific day which will end this age and will immediately precede the glory of the age to come. In other words, the last day of this present evil age will never be followed by another day marred by sin and death. It will be the day in which the word of Christ will judge men according to that which they ...


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The main point where we can know from the text how the day of resurrection is "that day" should be based on the fact that the disciples will know that they can have the experience of "ye in me and I in you" at "that day." [Jhn 14:10 NKJV] 10 "Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not ...


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The phrase "If you keep My commandments" in John 15:10 may imply a condition to keep it in a way of doing. However, when you study at the original word for the word commandments in Exodus 34:28, it is the word dabar, which literally means words. So the literal translation of the ten commandments should be ten words. But why does it is still translated as ten ...


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The Ἕτι πολλὰ"(yet many[things]) is implied by 'many words I must say to you, but you cannot hear them now'. The "things" is implied to mean "words", since "things" is not spelled out, yet we know contextually He is speaking, and not some other activity. What further illustrates this verse is the following,(vs 13-TR) ὅταν δὲ ἔλθῃ ἐκεῖνος τὸ πνεῦμα τῆς ...


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[Jhn 2:16, 19 NKJV] 16 And He said to those who sold doves, "Take these things away! Do not make My Father's house a house of merchandise!" ... 19 Jesus answered and said to them, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up." According to verse 16, the Father's house is the physical temple in Jerusalem. However, according to verse 19, the ...


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[Acts 1:2-3 NKJV] 2 until the day in which He was taken up, after He through the Holy Spirit had given commandments to the apostles whom He had chosen, 3 to whom He also presented Himself alive after His suffering by many infallible proofs, being seen by them during forty days and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God. According to ...


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In the spirit of this forum I shall not be addressing the question of whether the “historic” Jesus was historically crucified historically naked, but shall limit myself to the question of whether the author of John implied such a situation. The text of John 19:23 reads as follows: Οἱ οὖν στρατιῶται, ὅτε ἐσταύρωσαν τὸν Ἰησοῦν, ἔλαβον τὰ ἱμάτια αὐτοῦ, καὶ ...


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It was customary for Jews in ancient times to wear a loincloth under their outer garments. We see this, for example, in Jeremiah Chapter 13. So, even if the soldiers removed Jesus' outer garment, he could still have been wearing his loincloth (or 'girdle' - KJV). Having said that, part of the suffering of crucifixion was humiliation, and that humiliation ...


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Verses 1-18 of John chapter 1 can be read as a complete paragraph. At no point does John reveal Jesus' given name in this paragraph; rather, he calls him simply "the Word" and "the Light." In the section of the paragraph in which verse 16 finds itself, the mini-theme is grace. πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας ...


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On his entry for the preposition ἀντί, Thayer wrote, e. of succession to the place of another: Ἀρχβασιλεύει ἀντὶ Ἡρώδου in place of Herod, Mt. 2:22, (1 K. 11:44; Hdt. 1, 108; Xen. an. 1, 1, 4). χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος grace in the place of grace, grace succeeding grace perpetually, i. e. the richest abundance of grace, Jn. 1:16, (Theogn. vs. 344 ἀντʼ ἀνιῶν ...


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It implies abundance of graces. Ver. 16. And of his fulness we all have received; not only Jews, but also all nations. --- And grace for grace.1 It may perhaps be translated grace upon grace, as Mr. Blackwall observes, and brings a parallel example in Greek out of Theognis, p. 164. It implies abundance of graces, and greater graces under the new ...


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Look up the history of the Maccabees... John Hyrcanus forced the Idumeans (Edom/Esau) to convert to Judaism. the first example of conversion imposed by the Israelites in their history. The Edomites were of Abraham's seed but did not see slavery as the Israelites did. TheJews that spoke in John 8:33 were Edomite Jews. They in particular had a strong ...



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