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14

Satan is the father of Cain in that Cain acted like Satan. Genesis tells us that Adam (literally "the man") fathered Cain and Abel. Genesis 4:1 Now the man had relations with his wife Eve, and she conceived and gave birth to Cain, and she said, "I have gotten a manchild with the help of the LORD." The Hebrew grammar here shows that each step is a ...


11

Frank Luke's answer is clear enough to realize Cain is Adam's son, no question about that. I want to address something else you state: Assuming that Cain is the person that Jesus is referring to I would not assume that, nor would I argue that is correct. I take Jesus's statement as wholly referencing "the Devil" himself (just as the verse states). He ...


9

Short Answer: Many have come up with various numerological interpretations of the number 153 in John. I believe this to be reading into the text things not intended by the author. As the two previous answers to this questions illustrate well, this numerological method allows for several different interpretations of the same passage. Each of the words in ...


9

As others have said, "The Prophet" is Jesus. The prophet being Jesus is better than Mohammed because Moses' prophecy (Deuteronomy 18:15) says that he will arise "from your midst, of your brethren." The NET renders the idiom "your brethren" this way: 18:15 The Lord your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among you – from your fellow ...


9

Short answer Why are you expecting Jesus to have said something He did not say? Why He did not add "ὁ ὤν" is best answered "He did not want to say it." Questions of "motive" (why) are often very hard to answer firmly and purely from the text. Longer Answer Based in Exegesis Analysis So the core statement is this (my translation and notes): ...


8

This is a question about English usage. The Greek original has “en”, which can be translated as “in, on, at” depending on the context. In modern English we normally say “at” a certain time, “on” a given date, but in Early Modern English one often finds “at” where today we would say “in” or “on”. The Oxford English Dictionary, entry “at” IV 29 a, has a ...


8

Nicodemus Should Have Known from the Old Testament That the Old Testament is the source of the doctrine is confirmed by Christ Himself, for Nicodemus was supposed to have known these things. A slightly larger context helps see this: Jn 3:3-10 (NKJV) 3 Jesus answered and said to him, “Most assuredly, I say to you, unless one is born again [or "born ...


7

One possibility: the Beloved Disciple is Lazarus The primary source for laying out a case for the author's identity is John 21.24-25, the final two verses of the book. Here we are given a brief glimpse at the book's origin: it seems to have been written by or based on the testimony of an individual we identify as the Beloved Disciple ('This is the disciple ...


7

One option, of course, is to say that two similar events happened, one at the beginning of Jesus' ministry and one at the end. This is hard to maintain, however, as John frequently re-orders events from the synoptic gospels to achieve his theological point. Moreover, the descriptions of the events are very close. So we have to ask why John chose to move it ...


7

The attestation of χριστός outside of Jewish/Christian antique Greek literature is quite small. This is immediately apparent if you look at a list of all occurrences known to the Perseus corpus, as well as the citations noted in the Liddell-Scott-Jones entry. According to Walter Grundmann, writing in the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (vol. 9, ...


6

The four instances of this clause in John 6 are: 6:39 (NET) — "Now this is the will of the one who sent me—that I should not lose one person of every one he has given me, but raise them all up at the last day." 6:40 (NET) — "For this is the will of my Father—for everyone who looks on the Son and believes in him to have eternal life, and I will ...


6

I am an amateur at this, but I think that 2 Samuel 23 gives us a big clue as to how to interpret Jesus' remarks. Jesus's language appears to be the same language used by David who refused to drink of the water that the soldiers brought him because they had risked their lives to bring it to him, and what they brought to David was not worth them losing their ...


6

When comparing John 20:30-31 to other early Christian texts, it appears 'Christ' and 'son of God' (and 'Lord') were understood as synonyms when used for Jesus. The two terms appear in conjunction somewhat regularly1, a few you have already noted in a comment above. The reason for why the two phrases are so often used in relation to each other probably ...


6

The meaning of the English article In English the article ("the") is used to make a word definite. This is how you would demand an indefinite pizza: Bring me a pizza This is how you would demand a definite pizza: Bring me the pizza The meaning of the Greek article The meaning of the Greek article is slightly different, which can make it ...


6

Context Jesus is having a conversation with Nicodemus, who we are told in John 3:1 is a man of the Pharisees (ἄνθρωπος ἐκ τῶν Φαρισαίων) and a ruler of the Jews (ἄρχων τῶν Ἰουδαίων). Jesus tells Nicodemus that he must be born again (from above, γεννηθῇ ἄνωθεν) or else he will be unable to see the kingdom of God (τὴν βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ), and that he must be ...


5

Nowhere in scripture does it say that Jesus took up the trade of his father. In fact, the absence of of any writing about his life from 13-30 would lead an Israelite reader to assume that he DID have formal rabbinic training, and rather, the verse here is a blatant statement from John that Jesus did not, however, state his first teaching on any other rabbi's ...


5

With John 1:21 those asking the questions still consider that Prophet to be one person and the Christ another. They therefore ask John about the Prophet after John tells them he's not the Christ. What all of them seem to easily recall is what Moses had said; Deut 18:15 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy ...


5

Genesis 2:2 וַיְכַל אֱלֹהִים בַּיֹּום הַשְּׁבִיעִי מְלַאכְתֹּו אֲשֶׁר עָשָׂה וַיִּשְׁבֹּת בַּיֹּום הַשְּׁבִיעִי מִכָּל־מְלַאכְתֹּו אֲשֶׁר עָשָֽׂה׃ The word translated as "rest" in English, is actually the conjugated word from which we get the English word Sabbath, which actually means to "cease doing". וַיִּשְׁבֹּת or by its root: שָׁבַת ...


5

The origin of the Christian teaching of the ‘new birth’ is at most partly an outworking of the Hebrew concept of a resurrection, it uses words in Greek that can barely be traced in other literature and on the whole is therefore entirely something new. The Greek word used in 1 Peter 1:23 (αναγεγεννημενοι) is actually quite hard to find in any other Greek ...


5

This is a question about elementary Greek grammar. The verse has five parts: subject: ὁ δὲ παράκλητος, (masculine) in apposition to the subject: τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον (neuter) relative clause: ὃ (neuter) πέμψει ὁ πατὴρ ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί μου, reiteration of the subject by a masculine pronoun: ἐκεῖνος predicate: ὑμᾶς διδάξει πάντα καὶ ὑπομνήσει ὑμᾶς πάντα ἃ ...


5

Christian tradition holds that John did live to be 80 or 90. We know from Polycarp, that John was still active in Ephesus, and baptised him directly. Following Schaff: It is safe, then, to say that the apostle John, with other disciples of Christ, came from Palestine to Asia Minor. If Polycarp, on the day of his death (Feb. 23, 155), was looking back ...


4

The word in the Greek for all here is πάντας (pantas) whose root is πᾶς (pas). Vines Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words says of πᾶς: When used without the articles, it means, "every kind or variety." When used with the article, it means "whole or the totality of persons or things referred to." Analytical Lexicon of the Greek New Testament ...


4

Good question! Most English translations take παντας as "all men," or "all people" simply because παντας is an adjective functioning substantively, and it makes sense to render it that way in English. Usually when we have a substantival adjective we want to look for an antecedent noun, but in this case there is no easily identifiable antecedent. Our ...


4

The Hebrew Bible is a treasure trove of truth, and provides the lens through which to understand this passage regarding the Greeks seeking Jesus. First, the triumphal entry into Jerusalem resonated not with the Feast of Passover & Unleavened Bread (springtime), but the Feast of Tabernacles (autumn). That is, when the people took boughs and palm branches ...


4

The Greek behind your question is “τινων (of whomsoever) αφητε (you may remit) τας (the) αμαρτιας (sins) αφιενται (they are remitted) αυτοις (to them) αν τινων (whoesoever) κρατητε (you may retain) κεκρατηνται (they have been retained)”. This verse is often understood as equivalent to that found in other places such as Matthew 16:19: “ο (whatever) εαν δησης ...


4

Several years ago, I was reading through the Fourth Gospel about every week. During this time, one of the things I noticed was the way in which the author refers to Peter. Matthew, Mark and Luke almost almost refer to him simply as "Peter", the major exception being in the retelling of accounts prior to Peter's meeting with Jesus. On the other hand, the ...


4

Henry Alford commented, The man shrewdly evades the inference and states again the simple fact. Bear in mind, that ὤν must here be strictly kept to its present sense, as being joined with a present verb βλέπω: the rule for the construction of a pres. part. being, that it is contemporaneous with the verb which rules the time of the sentence. So that we ...


4

A slightly larger context answers this question. KJV 31 Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, If ye continue in my word, then are ye my disciples indeed; 32 And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free. 33 They answered him, We be Abraham’s seed, and were never in bondage to any man: how sayest thou, Ye shall be ...


4

Those are adjectives, not pronouns. They are plural neuter nominatives. "And all those who are mine are yours, and all of yours are mine..." BibleHub is right. It does jive with the KJV: because they are adjectives and not pronouns, the plural they carry is the plural of the things they are modifying. In other words, they act like other plural adjectives. ...


4

The Greek text of Robert Estienne's Textus Receptus (1551) states, καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ Πᾶς ἄνθρωπος πρῶτον τὸν καλὸν οἶνον τίθησιν καὶ ὅταν μεθυσθῶσιν τότε τὸν ἐλάσσω σὺ τετήρηκας τὸν καλὸν οἶνον ἕως ἄρτι The Greek word in question is μεθυσθῶσιν, which is conjugated from the verb μεθύω in the 3rd person, plural number, aorist tense, passive voice, ...



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