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16

Yes. This is a predicate nominative construction. That is, both θεὸς (God) and ὁ λόγος (the word) are in the nominative case, and they are joined by an equative verb (here, a form of "to be"). John 1:1 (NA28): Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. In English, we generally distinguish the subject (S) from the predicate ...


9

While before the 20th century there was common agreement on common authorship between the Gospel and Epistles of John, there is, as you mention, no such agreement today. At the same time, we are quick to note, however, that John and 1 John share a vocabulary of words and thought forms to such an extent that no one has mounted a serious proposal that they are ...


8

See also the follow-up Q&A to this one on the Greek antecedents of the absolute use of ἐγὼ εἰμί in the New Testament which advances and nuances the discussion below. The Question This is an excellent question, and one that in different forms has been pondered by interpreters of John's gospel for centuries. My own way of capturing what is at stake here ...


8

Granville Sharp's first rule (p. 3) does not apply to John 20:28 because of the presence of the definite article before the second substantive (noun). καὶ ἀπεκρίθη Ὁ Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου Now, in regards to the sixth rule, Granville Sharp wrote (pp. 14-16): In response to the Socinian claim, he wrote, Except ...


8

The topic of marriage is not a change in subject. Jesus conversation with the Samaritan woman is all about marriage. Here are four things most interpreters miss or simply don’t want to talk about. Jesus is a Bridegroom Jesus encounter with the woman by the well comes immediately after John the Baptist calls Jesus the “bridegroom.” Read John 3:28-30: ...


7

Bibliographic Postscript This is offered as a supplement to Soldarnal's fine answer. Probably the most thorough (one is tempted to say "exhaustive") account of the internal evidence bearing on the question of the common authorship of gJohn and 1 John is found in A.E. Brooke, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Johannine Epistles (Edinburgh, 1912), ...


5

This is a good question -- or rather, set of questions. I begin by reiterating a comment from the Q&A linked by OP: to engage with this set of issues fully, one really needs to consult Catrin H. Williams, I Am He: The Interpretation of ʾAnî Hûʾ in Jewish and Early Christian Literature (WUNT II/113; Mohr Siebeck, 2000). There is plenty of other relevant ...


5

I think we can make an educated, intelligent guess as to where Jesus was when the word came to him from Bethany that Lazarus was ill. First, we know that when Jesus received the word from Bethany that his friend Lazarus was ill, Jesus and his disciples were somewhere in Perea, engaging in what scholars call--fittingly enough--his Perean Ministry. They ...


5

It is worth noting that in the Greek on both occasions this phrase is in fact two phrases both of which are governed by the preposition 'ἐν' the conjunction that links them seems to suggest that they should be juxtaposed that is these phrase are being deliberately placed together in this fashion for comparison or contrast. The comparison is the the ...


5

No, John 14:16 cannot be used to "cancel" the Trinity and posit a Quaternity (or whatever), and specifically not "Spirits" of past and present. In the understanding of later Christian tradition, the Christian Bible depicts God as outside time in any case: see, e.g. Psalm 90:2 or 1 Timothy 1:17. That is why the "past" and "present" Spirits are nonsensical. ...


5

Commentators generally see this as a reference to the Mosaic laws forbidding blasphemy. For example, Barnes' Notes, the Pulpit Commentary, the Cambridge Bible and Ellicott's Commentary see it this way. Whoever blasphemes the name of the LORD shall surely be put to death. All the congregation shall stone him. The sojourner as well as the native, when he ...


4

There are several questions lying beneath the surface of this question: 1) Is it 'conclusive' that the Qumran Scrolls are the work of the Essenes? Scholars are generally in agreement with this conclusion, and cite the "Damascus Document", discovered in Cairo in 1897, or prior to the Qumran scrolls which depict the life of the Essene, the vows they had to ...


4

Before reconciling the synoptic account, generally, with John's account, it is first necessary to reconcile the different versions of the synoptic account. In Mark 1:16, Jesus sees Simon and Andrew his brother casting a net into the sea and calls them to follow him, and that he will make them fishers of men. Later, in verses 1:29-30, he visits the house ...


4

On his entry for the preposition ἀντί, Thayer wrote, e. of succession to the place of another: Ἀρχβασιλεύει ἀντὶ Ἡρώδου in place of Herod, Mt. 2:22, (1 K. 11:44; Hdt. 1, 108; Xen. an. 1, 1, 4). χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος grace in the place of grace, grace succeeding grace perpetually, i. e. the richest abundance of grace, Jn. 1:16, (Theogn. vs. 344 ἀντʼ ἀνιῶν ...


4

In the spirit of this forum I shall not be addressing the question of whether the “historic” Jesus was historically crucified historically naked, but shall limit myself to the question of whether the author of John implied such a situation. The text of John 19:23 reads as follows: Οἱ οὖν στρατιῶται, ὅτε ἐσταύρωσαν τὸν Ἰησοῦν, ἔλαβον τὰ ἱμάτια αὐτοῦ, καὶ ...


4

Jewish holy days are also ‘Sabbaths’, even if they don’t fall on a Saturday. The Jewish Encyclopedia’s entry for Holy Days states: Upon the six holy days in the Jewish calendar—the first and seventh days of Passover, the first and eighth days of Sukkot (Tabernacles), the day of Shebu'ot (Weeks), and the day of Rosh ha-Shanah (New-Year)—the ...


4

The articular infinitive is fun, isn’t it? This may be the most common construction in the Koine Greek that is has no real English equivalent. I’m a little confused about the way the sentence was parsed by your friends in the first paragraph, but I’ll explain it as I understand it and perhaps that will be helpful. The verse: καὶ νῦν δόξασόν με σύ, ...


3

The Idea in Brief The context appears to include both: that is, life despite ("even though") death and life after death. The statement also implies the obverse: those who are alive but do not believe are dead. Discussion The passage occurs as follows in the 28th Revised Edition of Aland's Greek New Testament (2012). John 11:25 (mGNT) 25 εἶπεν αὐτῇ ὁ ...


3

It seems that the Romans initially allowed the Jewish authorities to exercise capital punishment, but withdrew the privilege some time during Jesus' life. The historian Josephus writes of an instance in which stonings occurred, probably around the year 62 CE. The short version is as follows: The Roman prefect of Judæa, a man named Porcius Festus, died ...


3

From here it says that the Archaic definition of the word "mansion" was "an abode or dwelling place". The definition of the English word "mansion" has simply changed over time. This verse is therefore more accurately translated to modern readers in the NABRE translation as "mansion" here does not mean "a large estate" as the word would tend to indicate in ...


3

Short Answer: Comprehend, probably. A note on method: All words have a semantic range, and only context can tell us how a given word was intended to be understood. While some have asserted that in such instances John intended two (or more) meanings, we can be sure that this was not the case, as that is not how language works (except in the rare cases of ...


3

Short Answer: The word is best translated "one-of-a-kind" or simply "unique". ("Only" would also work, though it could be misunderstood more easily.) The old translation "only-begotten" was based on an honest mistake in parsing the Greek word. Background on "only-begotten" The Greek word in question is μονογενη. It is pretty clearly a compound word ...


3

I read this as one anointing. John Carroll says in The Existential Jesus, page 228, that most scholars today assume that John did not write the fourth gospel, which means it must have been written long after the events portrayed. To the author of John, everything in the gospel had already happened at the time of writing, so we should not read this as a ...


3

[Acts 1:2-3 NKJV] 2 until the day in which He was taken up, after He through the Holy Spirit had given commandments to the apostles whom He had chosen, 3 to whom He also presented Himself alive after His suffering by many infallible proofs, being seen by them during forty days and speaking of the things pertaining to the kingdom of God. According to ...


3

Jesus asks her to call her husband to demonstrate his power. He knows that she will tell him she has no husband, and so it's simply a setup for him to prove that he has divine power because he already knows everything about her life. It just so happened that he chose the subject of her marriage, but he could have just as easily asked about something else ...


3

I will answer your “Question 1”, as this is not addressed in the earlier question. In Classical Greek πιστεύω means “trust, put faith in, rely on” and takes an object in the dative or accusative; it is never (as far as I can see) construed with the prepositions ἐν or εἰς. This construction is, however, commonplace in LXX and NT, e.g. Ps. 77:22, where ὅτι ...


3

Let's take both scriptures and look at them. Jn 15:13: Greater love has no one than this: to lay down one's life for one's friends. Mt 5:44,46-47: But I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, [..] If you love those who love you, what reward will you get? Are not even the tax collectors doing that? And if you greet ...


3

[Just to make my bias clear up front, I don't agree with the NASB's interpretation in this instance.] I don't know any of the NASB translators personally (I'm not famous or anything thankfully), so I don't know for sure why they interpreted this passage in this way. C. Stirling Bartholomew explained the most likely possibilities (in my opinion). I'm ...


3

As you point out, the word φέρω can mean either "carry" or "bear". I think the traditional understanding as "bear" is well supported. I will address the contextual issues that have led you to wonder if it might not mean “bear" in the sense of “produce." Objection #1 OP: Branches are normally associated with trees not vines. True. However, κλήματα are ...



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