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5

The short answer is, because he ate "locusts and wild honey" (Mt 3:4; Mk 1:6). The slightly longer explanation is that John the Baptist lived a simple life (Lk 7:25) in the wilderness, where he was called from (Lk 3:2) and in which he ministered (Mt 3:1; Mk 1:4; Lk 7:24). Thus he lived off the land by eating these insects for protein, fat, and nutrients (as ...


5

I don't think Reformed theology or any other tradition really bears on this issue so much as simple hermeneutics. Jesus spoke using many traits of ordinary language , and forcing an interpretation on the passage that does not take into account the ordinary ways that language is used and people communicate ideas only leaves people with twisted conclusions. ...


4

Judaism of the time expected two messiahs to come. One of them was called Messiah ben David, and he was to be a warrior king who would run the foreigners out of Judea and Galilee. Messiah ben David would restore the kingdom to the Israelites and reign from the throne as God's right hand. The other was Messiah ben Levi (sometimes called Messiah ben ...


3

Abstract John is not part of the Kingdom of Heaven because his role is to point to and prepare the way for it. Jesus is speaking in the language of eschatology and not in the framework of modern Christian theology. The context of the passage is that John has been imprisoned by Herod: Now when John heard in prison about the deeds of the Christ, he ...


2

I've always interpreted this as that Jesus was referring to the Baptism of the Spirit. John never received the Baptism that Jesus was offering (John even asked Jesus at the time of Christ Baptism that he would baptize him). I think John didn't necessarily want 'water' baptism, but the 'spirit' baptism that Christ only could offer. I think that when Christ ...


2

John was not saying that he did not recognize Jesus as the Messiah in the way that we do not perceive or recognize a person's identity, like an old acquaintance or relative, but instead that Jesus had received recognition not from him (John), but from heaven that he (Jesus) was the Christ. The Greek word εἴδω is used the same way that we use the word ...


2

I have found it quite difficult to find any commentaries, ancient or modern, that state that the "us" is not Jesus and John the Baptist. Your question however has challenged me to look outside my orthodoxy, and so I present two interpretations: 1. Jesus was referring to himself and John the Baptist First, Jesus himself had to be baptised, and he was aware ...


1

Lk 1:57, where Elizabeth gives birth, comes after Lk 1:56, where Mary leaves. Though this in itself is not conclusive evidence that Mary left before John was born, it is an indication. Furthermore, Lk 1:58-36 talk about how Elizabeth's neighbors reacted, and how her relatives who had just heard the good news reacted, and how Zachariah reacted - there is ...


1

John the baptist knew when he was in his mother womb. It says in Luke 1:41-44: and it came to pass, that when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the baby leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the holy ghost. And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb. And whence is ...


1

It must be kept in mind that when Jesus uses the phrase "kingdom of God" or "kingdom of heaven," He is not referring generically to what moderns call "heaven." He is referring to the reign of God in His Messiah. This is why Jesus tells His hearers that the kingdom is "among" them in Luke 17:21. (Not "in"; the Greek is en and can mean either; here Jesus is ...


1

The text says nothing about confusion or doubt. John knew from his infancy that Jesus was the promised Messiah. He knew from Jesus' baptism that He was also the God's Son, the King. But kings, messiahs, never do miracles. As Frank says, many Jews interpreted the prophecies to mean that both a new David and a new Moses would come. But was Jesus also the new ...



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