Tag Info

New answers tagged

1

Jesus' statement in Luke 23:43 is not so much about the afterlife or what's required of us to get into heaven. It's primary purpose is to depict Jesus' death as undoing the curse of Adam. Luke presents Jesus as a new Adam. This is beyond a doubt the purpose in Luke's placement and arrangement of Jesus’ genealogy. Unlike Matthew who places his genealogy ...


-3

"Messiah" mean "appointed, anointed one". Jahoshuah" or nickname "Jesus" mean "to deliver, He saves". The difference is in meaning in authority (or destiny, purpose) that came because ancestry/origin) to which people can refer because different naturally having congenital or vested titles.


1

It's best to see Jesus' weeping within the context of John's water motif. Though John doesn't use the word water here, several elements indicate he saw in Jesus' tears the healing water welling up within the Son of Man. John's Water Motif Water is an important core symbol within the Gospel of John. John the Baptist states three times that he baptizes ...


-1

As said: the emphasis tends to be on the first: his humanity (Jesus), authority (Lord), messianity (Christ) We would perhaps render the texts even more accurately (giving additional respect and emphasis) in our languages if we employed comma and article: Iesous, the Christ, … The Christ, Iesous, … Our Lord Iesous, the Christ, … Somewhat unfamiliar but ...


4

Jesus had the legal authority to cleanse the temple not because he was a rabbi but because he claimed to be like Solomon, the "Son of David" and thus the builder of God's house (2 Samuel 7). This is evident from a careful reading of the gospels through the lens of the Hebrew Bible. In the synoptics the temple cleansing is immediately preceded by Jesus' ...


8

Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for ...


1

Before Moses, there is possibly no other name more appropriate for God other than the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. The reason is that God called Abraham out to populate a land given to a people that would serve him and then repeated the promise to Isaac and Jacob. The promise was to select a 'certain race', and how this particular line along that race ...


-1

Aramaic - Spoken language of first century Israel Jesus Christ spoke Aramaic. In Mark 5:41, we see Jesus saying "Talitha Cumi." This is Aramaic. Aramaic was the language of first century Israel. Not Greek or Latin or Hebrew. Old Hebrew was preserved by High Priests for religious purposes in the temple of Jerusalem since it is the holy language of Jews. ...


3

In the tanakh Avraham, Yitzchak, and Yaakov are the three patriarchs of the Jewish people, beginning with a covenant with Avraham (Gen 12, 15, 17) and culminating in God revealing himself and giving his torah (Ex 20) to the family of Israel (i.e. Yaakov, after God's messenger renamed him (Gen 32)). God speaks directly to these three patriarchs. God ...


3

Your question seems to be rhetorical. Most likely, of course, Jesus knew the prophecy of Joel. Did he quote it? Very likely, even if we can not pin it down. Not all is written down. The book Revelation quotes it often. (It is said to be inspired by him. Apk 1, 1) There is a difference between the two situations in which persons would call on the Name of ...



Top 50 recent answers are included