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12

Yes. This is a predicate nominative construction. That is, both θεὸς (God) and ὁ λόγος (the word) are in the nominative case, and they are joined by an equative verb (here, a form of "to be"). John 1:1 (NA-28): Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. In English, we generally distinguish the subject (S) from the predicate ...


10

Jesus is quoting a version of Psalm 8 that corresponds to the Septuagint (Greek translation), which does contain significant variations from the Masoretic (Hebrew version). The Masoretic is used for most versions of the Christian Old Testament in English. The Septuagint was completed roughly two centuries before Jesus did his teaching. Psalm 8.31 εκ ...


8

The Bible Answers this as "No" Quoting you (all quotations are from prior to editing the "tone" of the question): Is the Urantia Book ("White Stone") foretold in The Book of Revelation 2:17 ? There is no textual evidence to link the "white stone" symbol to the Urantia Book. Such a connection is an arbitrary assertion. Of course, because we are ...


8

Mark is more reliable.¹ Even if you were to completely discredit Mark², something is more than nothing. You cannot reasonably compare the accuracy of one document that exists with one that is only speculated to exist. Anybody that tries to tell you differently is selling something³. Answering your stated question is really that simple. In the world of ...


8

In the English language the expression "son of X" usually means an offshoot from X and therefore something which is distinct from X. Therefore "Son of God" may seem to imply a being who is not God. But in Hebrew idiom "A is the son of B" may mean that A shares the same nature as B, or A is a member of the group B. For example: Genesis 5:32 says literally ...


6

When comparing John 20:30-31 to other early Christian texts, it appears 'Christ' and 'son of God' (and 'Lord') were understood as synonyms when used for Jesus. The two terms appear in conjunction somewhat regularly1, a few you have already noted in a comment above. The reason for why the two phrases are so often used in relation to each other probably ...


6

A supplement to Mark Edward's answer: Though "strength" and "praise" are two very different words, the "strength" in Ps 8 in the Hebrew text comes from "mouths", and the psalm is about praising God. It is not a stretch to think that the psalm talks about praise from the infants' mouths. Moreover, the New Testament seldom quotes the Old Testament word for ...


6

I am an amateur at this, but I think that 2 Samuel 23 gives us a big clue as to how to interpret Jesus' remarks. Jesus's language appears to be the same language used by David who refused to drink of the water that the soldiers brought him because they had risked their lives to bring it to him, and what they brought to David was not worth them losing their ...


6

Jesus is being compared to John the Baptist by the Pharisees in that John ate sparingly and only things such as locust and honey and drank no wine. Jesus ate pretty much whatever he wanted to and drank wine, and was accused of gluttony and being a winebibber or drunken, because of this. They thought John the Baptist diet strange and too controlled, but when ...


5

There are two key points to pick up on in 1 Peter 3.19-20, bold here: ἐν ᾧ καὶ τοῖς ἐν φυλακῇ πνεύμασιν πορευθεὶς ἐκήρυξεν ἀπειθήσασίν ποτε, ὅτε ἀπεξεδέχετο ἡ τοῦ θεοῦ μακροθυμία ἐν ἡμέραις Νῶε κατασκευαζομένης κιβωτοῦ εἰς ἣν ὀλίγοι, τοῦτ’ ἔστιν ὀκτὼ ψυχαί, διεσώθησαν δι’ ὕδατος (NA28) The author is talking about: spirits (πνεύμασιν) who disobeyed ...


5

Although the gospel accounts generally evidence the fact that Jesus was fully literate, including this account in John: 6This they said to test him, that they might have some charge to bring against him. Jesus bent down and wrote with his finger on the ground. 7And as they continued to ask him, he stood up and said to them, “Let him who is without sin ...


5

As Wikis noted, there are many Bible versions which render the Greek aor. pass. part. masc. sing. nom. verb CΠΛΑΓΧΝΙCΘΕΙC (σπλαγχνισθεις) as "moved with compassion, " or "moved with pity". The form of that verb, however, properly means "to have the bowels yearn" (Strong's G4697). And the root of that verb form (σπλαγχνoν) refers to "the chief intestines, ...


5

The Idea in Brief The passage leans more toward the reading σπλαγχνισθεὶς based on various textual readings to include Ephraem Syrac's commentary on Tatian's Diatessaron. Discussion Based on best evidence, Arland et al (2012) provided this verse as follows in their Fourth Edition of The Greek New Testament: Mark 1:41 (mGNT) 41 καὶ σπλαγχνισθεὶς ...


4

Wikipedia has an article with a section specifically about the historicity of the Abgar legend (emphasis mine): The Abgar legend has played an important part in the self-definition of several Eastern churches, but its historicity is extremely doubtful. Two recent histories of the Church of the East, Baum and Winkler's The Church of the East and David ...


4

[Summarized from Brad Young's Jesus, the Jewish Theologian, pp. 114-116.] Divorce and remarriage are permitted under Jewish law, and Jesus did not prohibit the two acts. However, many Christians have made divorce and remarriage for any reason the same as adultery. There are even Christian denominations which do not allow their ministers to be remarried (the ...


4

The Hebrew Bible is a treasure trove of truth, and provides the lens through which to understand this passage regarding the Greeks seeking Jesus. First, the triumphal entry into Jerusalem resonated not with the Feast of Passover & Unleavened Bread (springtime), but the Feast of Tabernacles (autumn). That is, when the people took boughs and palm branches ...


4

From International Standard Bible Encyclopedia This is the favorite self-designation of Jesus in the Gospels. In Matthew it occurs over 30 times, in Mark 15 times, in Luke 25 times, and in John a dozen times. It is always in the mouth of Jesus Himself that it occurs, except once, when the bystanders ask what He means by the title (John 12:34). ...


4

I have found it quite difficult to find any commentaries, ancient or modern, that state that the "us" is not Jesus and John the Baptist. Your question however has challenged me to look outside my orthodoxy, and so I present two interpretations: 1. Jesus was referring to himself and John the Baptist First, Jesus himself had to be baptised, and he was aware ...


4

I may not fully understand your question, and it's difficult to parse what you're seeking, but the evidence would indicate that this story was actually a "stock trope" that Jesus leveraged to teach his audience about how to value people above possessions. In the below answer I attempt to address (Luke's) "authorial intent" in the way that he organized the ...


4

Jesus means none of the four things you noted Here is a slightly expanded context to the words you quote. John the Baptist had just sent messengers to confirm some things about Jesus (Lk 7:18-23). After they leave, Jesus says some very impressive words about John the Baptist (Lk 7:24-28). At this point is... Luke 7:29-35 29 (All the people, even the ...


4

Two church fathers alluded to Rev. 2:6 when they wrote: "And when the disciples (of Nicolaus) continued to offer insult to the Holy Spirit, John reproved them in the Apocalypse as fornicators and eaters of things offered unto idols."(Hippolytus, Refutation of All Heresies VII-103) "Enough it is for us that this heresy of the Nicolaitans has been ...


4

The idea of a human or group of humans being God's son is not uncommon in the Hebrew Tanakh ("Old Testament"). For example, in Exo. 4:22 (cp. Hos. 11:1), Yahveh commands Moses to say to Pharoah, Thus said Yahveh, "Israel is My son, even My firstborn." The motif of the nation of Israel being God's child is reiterated in various other books of the ...


3

The time Jesus was on earth, specifically during +-3.5years of ministry he was sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matt 15:24). Not that he didn't minister to any gentiles at all, but the Israelites were his primary mission. When you read the passage, the Greeks came to Philip. Instead of simply bringing them to Him, Philip goes and gets Andrew, ...


3

This is a very good question because it illustrates the sharp contrast between the learning styles of then and now. And if thou see a man of understanding, go to him early in the morning, and let thy foot wear the steps of his doors. [37] Let thy thoughts be upon the precepts of God, and meditate continually on his commandments: and he will give ...


3

The NWT translation rests on two quirks of Greek. Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ...(SBLGNT) the throne of you the God into the age of the age, ...(my nearly word-for-word translation) First, the nominative case and the vocative case often share the same forms. So the original passage has two occurrences of the word form "ὁ" ("the") ...


3

I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ ...


3

Aside from the manuscript evidence, which seems inconclusive, the most practical reading is to take it exactly as it is. Or as a not in the NET Bible says in a note on v. 8... "Jesus may simply have been refusing to accompany his brothers with the rest of the group of pilgrims, preferring to travel separately and “in secret” (v. 10) with his ...



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