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10

The Phrasing is Not a Direct Comment on Jesus being over 40 Years Old Irenaeus is in error with his logic here, partly because he is missing the context and particular significance of the statement. Background Rather than being a direct comment on Jesus' age (i.e. over 40 years old), the number 50 is stated because of its significance in Levitical service....


10

The translation of Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ is certainly “the revelation of Jesus Christ.” The real question is whether the genitive phrase should be understood as a subjective genitive or objective genitive. Subjective genitive: “the revelation of Jesus Christ” (ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ) is understood as “what Jesus Christ reveals” (ὃ ἀποκαλύπτει ὁ Ἰησοῦς ...


8

The Greek text of Phil. 2:5-8 according to the Nestle-Aland 28th edition states, 5 Τοῦτο φρονεῖτε ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, 6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ, 7 ἀλλ’ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος· καὶ σχήματι εὑρεθεὶς ὡς ἄνθρωπος 8 ἐταπείνωσεν ἑαυτὸν γενόμενος ὑπήκοος μέχρι ...


7

To discern what constitutes a "primary" source requires asking some research question or other: a "primary source" is any evidence which bears on the question's answer or solution; a "secondary source" is any assessment (or interpretation) of that evidence. In the absence of such a question (and subsequent argument in attempting to answer it), nothing or ...


6

In Search of Lost Lilies (and reliable Bible commentaries) “[A]lthough there is little doubt that the word [κρίνον] denotes some plant of the lily species, it is by no means certain what individual of this class it especially designates.” So William Smith framed his widely-quoted and, as we’ll see, outdated entry for ‘Lily’ in his popular Bible ...


5

I agree with the general consensus here that there probably isn't a great deal of meaningful semantic distinction between Χριστὸς Ἰησοῦς and Ἰησοῦς Χριστὸς. However, there's an incidental morphologic irregularity that explains at least some of the variation. In NT Greek, the dative form of Ἰησοῦς is Ἰησοῦ, identical in form with the genitive.1 This leads ...


5

Jesus states He is the Lord of the Sabbath. Thayer’s meaning of Lord κύριος: “he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has the power of deciding; master, lord; used a. universally, of the possessor and disposer of a thing, the owner.” When Jesus claimed to be the Lord of the Sabbath He was stating that He was owner of the Sabbath; it was His ...


5

Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. And being made perfect (τελειωθεὶς), he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him, being designated by God a high priest after the order of Melchizedek. (Hebrews 5:8-10 ESV) How this applies to Jesus who was already perfect can be seen in how the word is used elsewhere: ...


5

The inspiration was presumably drawn from Leviticus 24:16: וְנֹקֵ֤ב שֵׁם־יְהוָה֙ מ֣וֹת יוּמָ֔ת / רָג֥וֹם יִרְגְּמוּ־ב֖וֹ כָּל־הָעֵדָ֑ה wĕnōqēb šēm-yhwh môt yûmāt / rāgôm yirgĕmû-bô kol-hāʿēdâ Whoever blasphemes the name of the LORD shall surely be put to death. / All the congregation shall stone him. (ESV) This comes into the Greek (LXX Rahlfs | ...


5

1. "Jesus was crucified during the critical feast of Passover (mistakenly called the Feast of Unleavened Bread because they are so close in time to each other)." The Passover is the first day of the seven day Feast of Unleavened Bread. 1 Now the Lord spoke to Moses and Aaron in the land of Egypt, saying, 2 “This month shall be your beginning of months; ...


4

There are a variety of reasons why each gospel author may have chosen to implement what has come to be called the "messianic secret" (Messiasgeheimnis) theme (based on Wrede's watershed work).1 Most scholarly discussion of this theme is related to the gospel of Mark, which the author of the gospel ascribed to Matthew likely used as a source. Even so, the ...


4

Intro As noted by the OP, there are a number of these passage in the Gospel accounts. Collectively, this phenomenon is know as the "Messianic Secret" in academic literature. A number of explanations have been offered for the secrecy passages ranging from Jesus actually said such things for some reason (to teach the 12, to delay his death, to avoid Jewish ...


4

The only definition offered for φάντασμα by the very comprehensive A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (BDAG) is "apparition, especially ghost". As such, we should be cautious of any other interpretation. None-the-less, let's examine the evidence for (near) contemporary belief in ghosts: A common belief: evidence Meyer's Commentary suggests that ...


4

This is going to sound a little esoteric, but my belief is that He was doing things backwards compared to the way we do them to symbolize His coming to us. The way we come to God, we first come to the faith, and then accept His sacrifice. Afterwards we get baptized, and then the Holy Spirit tabernacles with us. I'm using this language for a reason. It's the ...


4

In John 1:17, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) states, ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωσέως ἐδόθη ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο which is translated as, since the Law was given by Moses; grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. It would seem as though the author is contrasting the Law with grace and truth and ...


4

You state regarding John 14:9: The phrase "he who has seen me has seen the Father," taken literally, seems to suggest that the Father looks exactly like the Lord Jesus Christ. Ergo, the Father must be corporal, having flesh and bones, and the Father must be Jewish, too. Yet, elsewhere, it is written that "God is spirit" (John 4:24), and "a spirit ...


4

Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and you still do not know me, Philip? Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? John 14:9 (ESV) The phrase "he who has seen me has seen the Father" refers to the works of the Father being seen in the words and deeds of Jesus Christ, who is God in flesh (cf: ...


4

The phase "in the bosom" (κολπον /kolpos) in this context conveys the eternal intimate communion between the Father and Son. Most bibles, even some paraphrases, do not alter the word "bosom". Probably because our English vernacular still uses the word to express the seat of deep affection. Albert Barnes commentary notes on this verse reads: In the ...


4

The earliest story of Jesus going into the wilderness occurs in Mark 1:13. Adam Winn (Mark and the Elijah-Elisha Narrative) says that all the details of Jesus' temptation narrative find parallels in the wilderness experiences of Elijah. Both Elijah and Jesus are in the wilderness for forty days, both are tempted, both are attended by angels and both are in ...


4

There have been instances when fasting was used as a tool to gain spiritual strength. When the disciples of Christ were unable to cast out a spirit, they take part in the following discussion recorded in Matthew 17:19-21 (KJV) 19Then came the disciples to Jesus apart, and said, Why could not we cast him out? 20 And Jesus said unto them, Because of ...


4

Mark 1:34 explains this … and He did not allow the demons to speak, because they knew Him. Jesus did not need or want the testimony of demons. I wouldn't either. He would have enough of the Pharisees accusing him of being in league with the devil in a short while. The reason given is that the demons "knew him". This is not a testimony of faith or ...


4

Jesus' crucifixion is clearly the centerpiece, the locus and telos of God's work of redemption. It is the defining moment of the Christian faith. And it is at this point, the cross, where man is judged: He is either forgiven by the Christ, or dies in his sins. This is a theological interpretation of the crucifixion as a whole, where the atonement for sin is ...


4

1. Question Restatement Was Crucifying Someone on the Sabbath against Jewish Law? Why were there two thieves on the Cross? 2. Coincidence, Or Significance? I had avoided this question - because: A.) It appeared to be looking for symbology; B.) Or, perhaps as simple as: "two were required because the prophecy indicated a plurality", but ... Then Again:...


4

Answer: Yes, it is explicitly mentioned that Jesus loved someone. In John 13:23, it is written, Now there was one of his disciples reclining on Jesus' bosom, whom Jesus loved. ἦν δέ ἀνακείμενος εἷς τῶν μαθητῶν αὐτοῦ ἐν τῷ κόλπῳ τοῦ Ἰησοῦ ὃν ἠγάπα ὁ Ἰησοῦς TR, 1550 This particular disciple is often referred to as "the beloved disciple." However, ...


4

Then he [John] said to the multitudes that came out to be baptized by him, “Brood of vipers! Who warned you to flee from the wrath to come? -Luke 3:7 (NKJV) Luke 3:7 says the multitude came out to be baptized by John. Luke then proceeds with John rebuking pretty much everyone, with Luke specifying exactly how much John rebuked people, even up to the very ...


3

Aaron, Eleazar and Ithamar were specifically told not to rend their clothing in mourning for Nadab and Abihu when the Lord killed them for bringing profane fire to the Tabernacle: "Then Moses said to Aaron and to his sons Eleazar and Ithamar, “Do not uncover your heads nor tear your clothes, so that you will not die and that He will not become wrathful ...


3

This is not possible, unless (in the first feast, feeding the five thousand) the disciples made a foolish assumption: Mark 6:36: Send them away, that they may go into the country round about, and into the villages, and buy themselves bread: for they have nothing to eat. From that verse, we ought to assume the crowd really did have nothing to eat. Even ...


3

There are two possible explanations. One is that the individual Gospel writers did not arrange events in a chronologic order; each one organized the events in a way that made the most sense to their audience or to best fit their theological emphasis. The second is that Jesus did this on more than one occasion and John records the first which took place ...



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