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10

The Phrasing is Not a Direct Comment on Jesus being over 40 Years Old Irenaeus is in error with his logic here, partly because he is missing the context and particular significance of the statement. Background Rather than being a direct comment on Jesus' age (i.e. over 40 years old), the number 50 is stated because of its significance in Levitical ...


10

The translation of Ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ is certainly "the revelation of Jesus Christ." The real question is whether the genitive phrase should be understood as a subjective genitive or objective genitive. Subjective genitive: "the revelation of Jesus Christ" (ἀποκάλυψις Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ) is understood as "what Jesus Christ reveals" (ὃ ἀποκαλύπτει ὁ Ἰησοῦς ...


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In Search of Lost Lilies “[A]lthough there is little doubt that the word [κρίνον] denotes some plant of the lily species, it is by no means certain what individual of this class it especially designates.” So William Smith framed his widely-quoted and, as we’ll see, outdated entry for ‘Lily’ in his popular Bible dictionary of 1863. Following his ...


6

It is worth noting that in the Greek on both occasions this phrase is in fact two phrases both of which are governed by the preposition 'ἐν' the conjunction that links them seems to suggest that they should be juxtaposed that is these phrase are being deliberately placed together in this fashion for comparison or contrast. The comparison is the the ...


6

Basic principles One of the basic principles of understanding the text of scripture is to allow the text to explain its self in the original context and setting. Here we have three temptations. We know they are temptations because we are told in v1 that Jesus' purpose in going to the wilderness was to face the tempter (see also Mk 1:12-13 & Luke 4:1-2) ...


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I don't think so. The passage has been viewed in at least two ways. In both views the purpose of the words of Jesus were still to answer a trick question by the pharisees. Matthew 22:15-22New International Version (NIV) Paying the Imperial Tax to Caesar 15 Then the Pharisees went out and laid plans to trap him in his words. 16 They sent their ...


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To discern what constitutes a "primary" source requires asking some research question or other: a "primary source" is any evidence which bears on the question's answer or solution; a "secondary source" is any assessment (or interpretation) of that evidence. In the absence of such a question (and subsequent argument in attempting to answer it), nothing or ...


5

It depends on what one sees as the point of fulfilling the Old Testament prophecies. If you mean "is the only reason to ride a donkey because it matches the prophecy" as being a formulaic fulfillment then perhaps one has to expand the understanding of why the prophecy exists. The prophecy doesn't just identify the mode of transport, it also says something. ...


5

You are correct that Isaiah wrote for his times and without knowledge of the Christian future. Daniel I Block says in 'My Servant David: Ancient Israel’s Vision of the Messiah', published in Israel’s Messiah (edited by Hess and Carroll), page 22, that in trying to know whether the Israelites of the Old Testament actually understood the Messiah in our terms, ...


5

Rabbi David Kimchi (דוד קמחי), also known as Radak (רד"ק), who lived from 1160–1235 A.D., wrote this in his Sefer Mikhlol (Folio 45b - מה, p. 92 on pdf) concerning the usage of the past tense in prophecies (which naturally concern future events): ותדע כי מנהג העוברי׳ בלשון הקדש להשתמש בו עבד מקום עתיד שהן אותיות איתן וזה בנבואות ברוב כי הדבר ברור כמו ...


5

Restatement: What is the significance of "troubled" in Matthew 2:3, and why wouldn't the city "rejoice", rather than be "troubled" at the birth of the Messiah? Answer - The Context Indicates A Figure of Speech In all likelihood, "All Jerusalem" was probably a reference to the leadership in Israel, as Jerusalem was the seat of authority. Especially ...


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Greek text: 5 Τοῦτο φρονεῖτε ἐν ὑμῖν ὃ καὶ ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, 6 ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ, 7 ἀλλ’ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών, ἐν ὁμοιώματι ἀνθρώπων γενόμενος· καὶ σχήματι εὑρεθεὶς ὡς ἄνθρωπος 8 ἐταπείνωσεν ἑαυτὸν γενόμενος ὑπήκοος μέχρι θανάτου, θανάτου δὲ σταυροῦ. NA28 English Translation: 5 Have this ...


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Jesus states He is the Lord of the Sabbath. Thayer’s meaning of Lord κύριος: “he to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has the power of deciding; master, lord; used a. universally, of the possessor and disposer of a thing, the owner.” When Jesus claimed to be the Lord of the Sabbath He was stating that He was owner of the Sabbath; it was His ...


5

The inspiration was presumably drawn from Leviticus 24:16: וְנֹקֵ֤ב שֵׁם־יְהוָה֙ מ֣וֹת יוּמָ֔ת / רָג֥וֹם יִרְגְּמוּ־ב֖וֹ כָּל־הָעֵדָ֑ה wĕnōqēb šēm-yhwh môt yûmāt / rāgôm yirgĕmû-bô kol-hāʿēdâ Whoever blasphemes the name of the LORD shall surely be put to death. / All the congregation shall stone him. (ESV) This comes into the Greek (LXX Rahlfs | ...


4

There are about 16 New Testament references to Jesus or the Son of Man being at God’s right hand. Acts 7:55-56 is unique in describing the Son of Man as standing (twice), four verses describe him simply as “at” God’s right hand (Acts 2:33, 5:31; Rom.8:34; and 1Pet.3:22), and the remainder describe him as seated (Mt.26:64; Mk.14:62, 16:19; Lk.22:69; Acts ...


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Jason: If you assume that the prophecy in Isaiah 53 actually begins at Isaiah 52:13 -- a line that uses the future tense -- then the text will read much differently than taught in church. We need to start at chapter 52 because the person described in chapter 53 is just described as "he." Who is "he"? Verse 52:13 begins the narration saying, "Behold, My ...


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Intro As noted by the OP, there are a number of these passage in the Gospel accounts. Collectively, this phenomenon is know as the "Messianic Secret" in academic literature. A number of explanations have been offered for the secrecy passages ranging from Jesus actually said such things for some reason (to teach the 12, to delay his death, to avoid Jewish ...


4

There are a variety of reasons why each gospel author may have chosen to implement what has come to be called the "messianic secret" (Messiasgeheimnis) theme (based on Wrede's watershed work).1 Most scholarly discussion of this theme is related to the gospel of Mark, which the author of the gospel ascribed to Matthew likely used as a source. Even so, the ...


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The only definition offered for φάντασμα by the very comprehensive A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (BDAG) is "apparition, especially ghost". As such, we should be cautious of any other interpretation. None-the-less, let's examine the evidence for (near) contemporary belief in ghosts: A common belief: evidence Meyer's Commentary suggests that ...


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This is going to sound a little esoteric, but my belief is that He was doing things backwards compared to the way we do them to symbolize His coming to us. The way we come to God, we first come to the faith, and then accept His sacrifice. Afterwards we get baptized, and then the Holy Spirit tabernacles with us. I'm using this language for a reason. It's the ...


4

In John 1:17, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) states, ὅτι ὁ νόμος διὰ Μωσέως ἐδόθη ἡ χάρις καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια διὰ Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐγένετο which is translated as, since the Law was given by Moses; grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. It would seem as though the author is contrasting the Law with grace and truth and ...


4

Jesus said to him, “Have I been with you so long, and you still do not know me, Philip? Whoever has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, ‘Show us the Father’? John 14:9 (ESV) The phrase "he who has seen me has seen the Father" refers to the works of the Father being seen in the words and deeds of Jesus Christ, who is God in flesh (cf: ...


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The phase "in the bosom" (κολπον /kolpos) in this context conveys the eternal intimate communion between the Father and Son. Most bibles, even some paraphrases, do not alter the word "bosom". Probably because our English vernacular still uses the word to express the seat of deep affection. Albert Barnes commentary notes on this verse reads: In the ...


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Although he was a son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. And being made perfect (τελειωθεὶς), he became the source of eternal salvation to all who obey him, being designated by God a high priest after the order of Melchizedek. (Hebrews 5:8-10 ESV) How this applies to Jesus who was already perfect can be seen in how the word is used ...


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Mark 1:34 explains this … and He did not allow the demons to speak, because they knew Him. Jesus did not need or want the testimony of demons. I wouldn't either. He would have enough of the Pharisees accusing him of being in league with the devil in a short while. The reason given is that the demons "knew him". This is not a testimony of faith or ...


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Isaiah did not write in the past tense. Biblical Hebrew does not employ tenses in the same way as English or Greek do. Isaiah wrote this chapter in perfect aspect ie he saw the actions of the verbs as whole/ complete without respect to their timing1 Prophecy is often presented in the perfect aspect as it is direct revelation from God the actions are not ...


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The early Christian Church was very much divided between the branch that became the forerunner of the Catholic-Orthodox tradition and the Gnostic Christians. Many Gnostics believed that Jesus did not really come in the flesh, only appearing to do so, and it is this doctrine that 'the Presbyter' is concerned with. The Presbyter was writing to an unspecified ...


3

Why a kiss? There are certainly far less intimate ways to identify someone. Why was the kiss chosen as their signal? A kiss was a common greeting among friends (cp. Rom. 16:16; 1 Cor. 16:20; 2 Cor. 13:12; 1 Thes. 5:26; 1 Pet. 5:14). Since Judas was one of Jesus' twelve original apostles, they would have shared a vinculum amicitiae, and a kiss would have ...



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