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12

Yes. This is a predicate nominative construction. That is, both θεὸς (God) and ὁ λόγος (the word) are in the nominative case, and they are joined by an equative verb (here, a form of "to be"). John 1:1 (NA-28): Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. In English, we generally distinguish the subject (S) from the predicate ...


9

The Bible Answers this as "No" Quoting you (all quotations are from prior to editing the "tone" of the question): Is the Urantia Book ("White Stone") foretold in The Book of Revelation 2:17 ? There is no textual evidence to link the "white stone" symbol to the Urantia Book. Such a connection is an arbitrary assertion. Of course, because we are ...


9

Mark is more reliable.¹ Even if you were to completely discredit Mark², something is more than nothing. You cannot reasonably compare the accuracy of one document that exists with one that is only speculated to exist. Anybody that tries to tell you differently is selling something³. Answering your stated question is really that simple. In the world of ...


8

In the English language the expression "son of X" usually means an offshoot from X and therefore something which is distinct from X. Therefore "Son of God" may seem to imply a being who is not God. But in Hebrew idiom "A is the son of B" may mean that A shares the same nature as B, or A is a member of the group B. For example: Genesis 5:32 says literally ...


6

Jesus is being compared to John the Baptist by the Pharisees in that John ate sparingly and only things such as locust and honey and drank no wine. Jesus ate pretty much whatever he wanted to and drank wine, and was accused of gluttony and being a winebibber or drunken, because of this. They thought John the Baptist diet strange and too controlled, but when ...


6

Two church fathers alluded to Rev. 2:6 when they wrote: "And when the disciples (of Nicolaus) continued to offer insult to the Holy Spirit, John reproved them in the Apocalypse as fornicators and eaters of things offered unto idols."(Hippolytus, Refutation of All Heresies VII-103) "Enough it is for us that this heresy of the Nicolaitans has been ...


5

There are two key points to pick up on in 1 Peter 3.19-20, bold here: ἐν ᾧ καὶ τοῖς ἐν φυλακῇ πνεύμασιν πορευθεὶς ἐκήρυξεν ἀπειθήσασίν ποτε, ὅτε ἀπεξεδέχετο ἡ τοῦ θεοῦ μακροθυμία ἐν ἡμέραις Νῶε κατασκευαζομένης κιβωτοῦ εἰς ἣν ὀλίγοι, τοῦτ’ ἔστιν ὀκτὼ ψυχαί, διεσώθησαν δι’ ὕδατος (NA28) The author is talking about: spirits (πνεύμασιν) who disobeyed ...


5

The Tanakh (the Old Testament) is replete with prophecies concerning the Messiah. Beginning with Genesis 3:15, also called the protoevangelium, there are hints, allusions, and explicit references to the identity, the roles, and the work of the promised Messiah. Jesus explained (likely) every one of them in His conversation with Cleopas and an unnamed ...


5

As Wikis noted, there are many Bible versions which render the Greek aor. pass. part. masc. sing. nom. verb CΠΛΑΓΧΝΙCΘΕΙC (σπλαγχνισθεις) as "moved with compassion, " or "moved with pity". The form of that verb, however, properly means "to have the bowels yearn" (Strong's G4697). And the root of that verb form (σπλαγχνoν) refers to "the chief intestines, ...


5

The Idea in Brief The passage leans more toward the reading σπλαγχνισθεὶς based on various textual readings to include Ephraem Syrac's commentary on Tatian's Diatessaron. Discussion Based on best evidence, Arland et al (2012) provided this verse as follows in their Fourth Edition of The Greek New Testament: Mark 1:41 (mGNT) 41 καὶ σπλαγχνισθεὶς ...


5

The textual variants are ἰδὼν and εἰδώς. According to Tischendorf, ἰδών is the well attested variant. ἰδών is a participle declined in the aorist tense, active voice, nominative case, masculine gender, and singular number. It is derived from the aorist tense verb εἶδον. εἰδώς is a participle declined in the perfect tense, active voice, nominative case, ...


5

Short Answer: "Two swords will be sufficient" fits the semantics, but has significant contextual difficulties. "Enough!" fits the broader context better, but has other significant difficulties. The best explanation seems to be that Jesus was not thrilled with their interpretation of His instructions, but this wasn't clear to them until after the fact, and ...


5

I think we can make an educated, intelligent guess as to where Jesus was when the word came to him from Bethany that Lazarus was ill. First, we know that when Jesus received the word from Bethany that his friend Lazarus was ill, Jesus and his disciples were somewhere in Perea, engaging in what scholars call--fittingly enough--his Perean Ministry. They ...


4

I have found it quite difficult to find any commentaries, ancient or modern, that state that the "us" is not Jesus and John the Baptist. Your question however has challenged me to look outside my orthodoxy, and so I present two interpretations: 1. Jesus was referring to himself and John the Baptist First, Jesus himself had to be baptised, and he was aware ...


4

I may not fully understand your question, and it's difficult to parse what you're seeking, but the evidence would indicate that this story was actually a "stock trope" that Jesus leveraged to teach his audience about how to value people above possessions. In the below answer I attempt to address (Luke's) "authorial intent" in the way that he organized the ...


4

From International Standard Bible Encyclopedia This is the favorite self-designation of Jesus in the Gospels. In Matthew it occurs over 30 times, in Mark 15 times, in Luke 25 times, and in John a dozen times. It is always in the mouth of Jesus Himself that it occurs, except once, when the bystanders ask what He means by the title (John 12:34). ...


4

Jesus means none of the four things you noted Here is a slightly expanded context to the words you quote. John the Baptist had just sent messengers to confirm some things about Jesus (Lk 7:18-23). After they leave, Jesus says some very impressive words about John the Baptist (Lk 7:24-28). At this point is... Luke 7:29-35 29 (All the people, even the ...


4

Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


4

The idea of a human or group of humans being God's son is not uncommon in the Hebrew Tanakh ("Old Testament"). For example, in Exo. 4:22 (cp. Hos. 11:1), Yahveh commands Moses to say to Pharoah, Thus said Yahveh, "Israel is My son, even My firstborn." The motif of the nation of Israel being God's child is reiterated in various other books of the ...


4

There are several lines of speculation as to who the Nicolaitans were, but no real evidence. It does seem that they were an early Christian sect, of whom John of Patmos says the Lord disapproved. H. A. Ironside (http://www.a-voice.org/library/nicolait.htm) says a commonly held view is that they were followers of Nicolaos, mentioned along with Stephen as ...


4

In Mark 11:27-12:44, Jesus is in the temple, where the Pharisees, scribes and Sadducees try to trick him into error, with one question after another. The question of the Sadducees is divided into three parts: 12:19 is a quotation from Deuteronomy; 12:20-22 is the narrative of a case; and 12:23 is the trick question by which they hope to catch him. The ...


3

Aside from the manuscript evidence, which seems inconclusive, the most practical reading is to take it exactly as it is. Or as a not in the NET Bible says in a note on v. 8... "Jesus may simply have been refusing to accompany his brothers with the rest of the group of pilgrims, preferring to travel separately and “in secret” (v. 10) with his ...


3

I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ ...


3

Matthew 11:12-14 NET: "From the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven has suffered violence, and forceful people lay hold of it. For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John appeared. And if you are willing to accept it, he is Elijah, who is to come. The one who has ears had better listen!" Luke 16:16 NET: “The law ...


3

CAVEAT: For those who are offended by the inclusion of humor into an answer, be forewarned that there will be an instance of humor in the paragraph coming after the words highlighted in yellow, "Is not this the carpenter's son . . .." As Davïd indicates above, there is more than a little speculation as to when, or even if, Joseph died at some point ...


3

The NWT translation rests on two quirks of Greek. Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ...(SBLGNT) the throne of you the God into the age of the age, ...(my nearly word-for-word translation) First, the nominative case and the vocative case often share the same forms. So the original passage has two occurrences of the word form "ὁ" ("the") ...


3

One argument that has been made is that the care for the righteous, i.e. the preservation of a man's (David's) bones in suffering, imagery is joined up with the passover theme. In the passover they were not to break any bones of the sacrificial Lamb. 46 “It must be eaten inside the house; take none of the meat outside the house. Do not break any of the ...


3

A quick methodological note. An answer to the question of what was regarded as "blasphemy" by the Sanhedrin requires an answer rooted in Jewish Law of the Second Temple period,1 rather than in the Hebrew Bible itself. Scholarship on Jesus' trial in the context of Roman and Jewish law of the period has been carried on for a very long time. One of the ...


3

I read this as one anointing. John Carroll says in The Existential Jesus, page 228, that most scholars today assume that John did not write the fourth gospel, which means it must have been written long after the events portrayed. To the author of John, everything in the gospel had already happened at the time of writing, so we should not read this as a ...


2

Joachim Jeremias in New Testament theology p.202 says that it means 'do not let me fall victim, not to everyday temptations, but to the last great trial'. He says that Jesus expected his mission to lead to a time of terrible widespread suffering before God's reign starts, and therefore the disciples are to pray to be protected from apostasy.



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