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14

Yes. This is a predicate nominative construction. That is, both θεὸς (God) and ὁ λόγος (the word) are in the nominative case, and they are joined by an equative verb (here, a form of "to be"). John 1:1 (NA-28): Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. In English, we generally distinguish the subject (S) from the predicate ...


9

Mark is more reliable.¹ Even if you were to completely discredit Mark², something is more than nothing. You cannot reasonably compare the accuracy of one document that exists with one that is only speculated to exist. Anybody that tries to tell you differently is selling something³. Answering your stated question is really that simple. In the world of ...


8

In the English language the expression "son of X" usually means an offshoot from X and therefore something which is distinct from X. Therefore "Son of God" may seem to imply a being who is not God. But in Hebrew idiom "A is the son of B" may mean that A shares the same nature as B, or A is a member of the group B. For example: Genesis 5:32 says literally ...


8

Granville Sharp's first rule (p. 3) does not apply to John 20:28 because of the presence of the definite article before the second substantive (noun). καὶ ἀπεκρίθη Ὁ Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου Now, in regards to the sixth rule, Granville Sharp wrote (pp. 14-16): In response to the Socinian claim, he wrote, Except ...


6

Two church fathers alluded to Rev. 2:6 when they wrote: "And when the disciples (of Nicolaus) continued to offer insult to the Holy Spirit, John reproved them in the Apocalypse as fornicators and eaters of things offered unto idols."(Hippolytus, Refutation of All Heresies VII-103) "Enough it is for us that this heresy of the Nicolaitans has been ...


6

The Idea in Brief The passage leans more toward the reading σπλαγχνισθεὶς based on various textual readings to include Ephraem Syrac's commentary on Tatian's Diatessaron. Discussion Based on best evidence, Arland et al (2012) provided this verse as follows in their Fourth Edition of The Greek New Testament: Mark 1:41 (mGNT) 41 καὶ σπλαγχνισθεὶς ...


6

As Wikis noted, there are many Bible versions which render the Greek aor. pass. part. masc. sing. nom. verb CΠΛΑΓΧΝΙCΘΕΙC (σπλαγχνισθεις) as "moved with compassion, " or "moved with pity". The form of that verb, however, properly means "to have the bowels yearn" (Strong's G4697). And the root of that verb form (σπλαγχνoν) refers to "the chief intestines, ...


6

You are correct that Isaiah wrote for his times and without knowledge of the Christian future. Daniel I Block says in 'My Servant David: Ancient Israel’s Vision of the Messiah', published in Israel’s Messiah (edited by Hess and Carroll), page 22, that in trying to know whether the Israelites of the Old Testament actually understood the Messiah in our terms, ...


6

Basic principles One of the basic principles of understanding the text of scripture is to allow the text to explain its self in the original context and setting. Here we have three temptations. We know they are temptations because we are told in v1 that Jesus' purpose in going to the wilderness was to face the tempter (see also Mk 1:12-13 & Luke 4:1-2) ...


5

The textual variants are ἰδὼν and εἰδώς. According to Tischendorf, ἰδών is the well attested variant. ἰδών is a participle declined in the aorist tense, active voice, nominative case, masculine gender, and singular number. It is derived from the aorist tense verb εἶδον. εἰδώς is a participle declined in the perfect tense, active voice, nominative case, ...


5

Short Answer: "Two swords will be sufficient" fits the semantics, but has significant contextual difficulties. "Enough!" fits the broader context better, but has other significant difficulties. The best explanation seems to be that Jesus was not thrilled with their interpretation of His instructions, but this wasn't clear to them until after the fact, and ...


5

I think we can make an educated, intelligent guess as to where Jesus was when the word came to him from Bethany that Lazarus was ill. First, we know that when Jesus received the word from Bethany that his friend Lazarus was ill, Jesus and his disciples were somewhere in Perea, engaging in what scholars call--fittingly enough--his Perean Ministry. They ...


5

It is worth noting that in the Greek on both occasions this phrase is in fact two phrases both of which are governed by the preposition 'ἐν' the conjunction that links them seems to suggest that they should be juxtaposed that is these phrase are being deliberately placed together in this fashion for comparison or contrast. The comparison is the the ...


4

One argument that has been made is that the care for the righteous, i.e. the preservation of a man's (David's) bones in suffering, imagery is joined up with the passover theme. In the passover they were not to break any bones of the sacrificial Lamb. 46 “It must be eaten inside the house; take none of the meat outside the house. Do not break any of the ...


4

The NWT translation rests on two quirks of Greek. Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ...(SBLGNT) the throne of you the God into the age of the age, ...(my nearly word-for-word translation) First, the nominative case and the vocative case often share the same forms. So the original passage has two occurrences of the word form "ὁ" ("the") ...


4

The idea of a human or group of humans being God's son is not uncommon in the Hebrew Tanakh ("Old Testament"). For example, in Exo. 4:22 (cp. Hos. 11:1), Yahveh commands Moses to say to Pharoah, Thus said Yahveh, "Israel is My son, even My firstborn." The motif of the nation of Israel being God's child is reiterated in various other books of the ...


4

There are several lines of speculation as to who the Nicolaitans were, but no real evidence. It does seem that they were an early Christian sect, of whom John of Patmos says the Lord disapproved. H. A. Ironside (http://www.a-voice.org/library/nicolait.htm) says a commonly held view is that they were followers of Nicolaos, mentioned along with Stephen as ...


4

In Mark 11:27-12:44, Jesus is in the temple, where the Pharisees, scribes and Sadducees try to trick him into error, with one question after another. The question of the Sadducees is divided into three parts: 12:19 is a quotation from Deuteronomy; 12:20-22 is the narrative of a case; and 12:23 is the trick question by which they hope to catch him. The ...


4

It depends on what one sees as the point of fulfilling the Old Testament prophecies. If you mean "is the only reason to ride a donkey because it matches the prophecy" as being a formulaic fulfillment then perhaps one has to expand the understanding of why the prophecy exists. The prophecy doesn't just identify the mode of transport, it also says something. ...


4

Rabbi David Kimchi (דוד קמחי), also known as Radak (רד"ק), who lived from 1160–1235 A.D., wrote this in his Sefer Mikhlol (Folio 45b - מה, p. 92 on pdf) concerning the usage of the past tense in prophecies (which naturally concern future events): ותדע כי מנהג העוברי׳ בלשון הקדש להשתמש בו עבד מקום עתיד שהן אותיות איתן וזה בנבואות ברוב כי הדבר ברור כמו ...


3

I think Jesus was talking to Peter himself and that he called him Satan metaphorically. Such an interpretation would correspond with Jeremiah 30:9 and Ezekiel 37:24 where the Messiah is called "David". Obviously the Messiah wasn't literally the David of the OT resurrected as Jesus of Nazareth. But Jeremiah and Ezekiel referred to David because David is a ...


3

A quick methodological note. An answer to the question of what was regarded as "blasphemy" by the Sanhedrin requires an answer rooted in Jewish Law of the Second Temple period,1 rather than in the Hebrew Bible itself. Scholarship on Jesus' trial in the context of Roman and Jewish law of the period has been carried on for a very long time. One of the ...


3

I read this as one anointing. John Carroll says in The Existential Jesus, page 228, that most scholars today assume that John did not write the fourth gospel, which means it must have been written long after the events portrayed. To the author of John, everything in the gospel had already happened at the time of writing, so we should not read this as a ...


3

The language of Luke 10:18 "ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ πεσόντα" echoes the Language of Isa 14:12 in the LXX "ἐξέπεσεν ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ". In the excellent book "Commentary on the New Testament use of the Old Testement" (Beale & Carson) it is pointed out that Jewish tradition also applies Is 14:12 to the fall of Satan as Jesus Christ does, they cite: 2 Enoch 29:3 ...


3

The early Christian Church was very much divided between the branch that became the forerunner of the Catholic-Orthodox tradition and the Gnostic Christians. Many Gnostics believed that Jesus did not really come in the flesh, only appearing to do so, and it is this doctrine that 'the Presbyter' is concerned with. The Presbyter was writing to an unspecified ...


3

The sin would have been in acting contrary to the will of his Father that was known to him. Stones into Bread Twice in Matthew's gospel Jesus feeds thousands with a few loaves (chapters 14 and 15). John adds that the crowd wanted to make Jesus king by force. This was the temptation, then, to solve the problems of the world in the wrong way. He could ...


3

The word “doubt” in the Greek that is used in the Bible is δισταζω - pronounced distazo. The Greek dictionary defines it as ‘to waver, hesitate’ and the modern English dictionary gives its archaic (ancient) meanings as: to fear; be apprehensive about.to be uncertain about something; be undecided in opinion or belief. A feeling of uncertainty about the ...


2

This is part of a series of illustrations on interpreting the law[1] We need to know how to interpret the entire series of illustrations in Matthew 5:17-48, before we can be confident we are understanding the specifics of verse 32. The illustrations are part of Jesus' explanation of how to interpret the law, and that he has come not to abolish the law but ...


2

Lots of discussion on this subject. But if i may clarify on the key question. Although previous scripture indicates that John knew Jesus as a great teacher, a prophet, and perhaps even as one defined as the Messiah by his mother and aunt, the statement in John, Chapter 1:29-34 declares that until the moment of confirmation wherein the prophesy from God was ...


2

I'll answer your last question, first. Jesus interpreted His words about eating His flesh and drinking His blood in verse 63 of chapter 6, where He said, "'It is the Spirit who gives life; the flesh profits nothing; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and are life.'" In other words, Jesus was telling disciples who were offended after ...



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