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This answer offers a subtle but significant adjustment to Joseph's helpful offering. OP's main question is: Why is the masculine pronoun "him" used to describe Israel in this passage? The central answer to this question is that "Israel" is always "masculine, singular" in biblical Hebrew. One of the basic studies of this phenomenon is by J.J. Schmitt, ...


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I interpret scripture as clearly stating the Torah as a corruption of the 'Law'. (The Ten Commandments I believe according to scripture were the 'Law') I don't believe 613 additional acts or policies authorised by God through Moses means either God or Moses made a mistake. God gave people free will so Moses was told by God to give the people what they ...


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While the Torah may or may not be in one-for-one in format of a Ketubah, there are many similarities between a Jewish wedding and when the Israelite received the Torah. In this "wedding," the Torah would take the place of the Ketubah and this would be a basis for understanding the Torah as being a Ketubah. What is important to remember however is that the ...



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