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This answer offers a subtle but significant adjustment to Joseph's helpful offering. OP's main question is: Why is the masculine pronoun "him" used to describe Israel in this passage? The central answer to this question is that "Israel" is always "masculine, singular" in biblical Hebrew. One of the basic studies of this phenomenon is by J.J. Schmitt, ...


I was listening to a sermon by Voddie Baucham a while ago on exactly this, and thought it was quite interesting, maybe it will be of some help to understand the issue. You can listen to the full thing here: Voddie Baucham - The 144,000 (skip to around minute 26 if you only want to hear the explanation as it pertains to the question). Basically, he says that ...

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