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This answer offers a subtle but significant adjustment to Joseph's helpful offering. OP's main question is: Why is the masculine pronoun "him" used to describe Israel in this passage? The central answer to this question is that "Israel" is always "masculine, singular" in biblical Hebrew. One of the basic studies of this phenomenon is by J.J. Schmitt, ...


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I found this and thought it would be useful: Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary (2 Kings 3:27): took his eldest son that should have reigned in his stead, and offered him for a burnt offering, &c.— By this deed of horror, to which the allied army drove the king of Moab, a divine judgment came upon Israel; that is, the besiegers feared the ...


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The renaming of Jacob in both Genesis 32 and 35 is a doublet; the editors of Genesis have preserved two versions of how Jacob received the name 'Israel'. It has long been recognized that Genesis was comprised of multiple sources, sometimes including alternate traditions of the same stories. This falls under the realm of the Documentary Hypothesis. Michael ...


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I was listening to a sermon by Voddie Baucham a while ago on exactly this, and thought it was quite interesting, maybe it will be of some help to understand the issue. You can listen to the full thing here: Voddie Baucham - The 144,000 (skip to around minute 26 if you only want to hear the explanation as it pertains to the question). Basically, he says that ...



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