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There are four instances of the Present Imperative (Second Person Plural) in the Epistle to the Ephesians where there is ambiguity between the middle and passive voice, because the literal grammatical verb form is identical. (Please click here for more examples in the New Testament.) In the Epistle to the Ephesians, every single one of these four verbs is in ...


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The word "forgive*"(aphiemi-to send forth*) implies a legal action: it holds one 'harmless' from a legal debt. To be declared "aphiemi", means one's debt has been satisfied; in the case of Matt. 12:30-32, one's penalty of 'sin and blasphemy' shall be "aphiemi" them-following, of course, the prescription of 1 John 1:9,"If we confess our sins; He is faithful ...


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While this topic is usually called the "Unforgivable Sin" I believe that is a bad translation and it should really be called the "Unignorable Sin". Verse 32 is: Anyone who speaks a word against the Son of Man will be forgiven, but anyone who speaks against the Holy Spirit will not be forgiven, either in this age or in the age to come. (NIV) The Greek ...


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Answer to a part of your question. It could well be that John had access to what is now known as the Community Rule of the Dead Sea Scrolls as it was old enough, dating from the 2nd century BCE. In the third part it says: "He shall be cleansed from all his sins by the spirit of holiness uniting him to His truth . . . And when his flesh is sprinkled with ...


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I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ ...


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Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


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I'd like to add something to @curiousdanni answer (and his comments) but from Aramaic perspective. In Aramaic Peshitta the word forgiven in Matthew 12:30-32 is ܢܶܫܬ݁ܒ݂ܶܩ which can also have meanings of left, ignored, omitted, dismissed (see William Jennings' Lexicon to the Syriac New Testament) and it is used in other verses in such meaning. For example: ...


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Brother Jospeh has given a great answer to your first question, so I wanted to address the second one: "Speaking in psalms, singing in hearts, giving thanks, submitting one another. Are these behaviors the result of being filled in the Spirit or are they ways to fill yourself in the Spirit?" In Greek, these are present active participles that are acting ...


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Preface: Since you asked for evidence from the text itself I will appeal to the text only in support of my assertions, which vary from Matthew Henry's commentary and IVP Commentary, both of which see Simon as seeking office/ to be equal, in authority, with the apostles. Simply observing the text: As you noted, Simon first observed the benefits/power of ...


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1) Since the verb "πληρόω" is transitive, there won't be any wordform distinction between present middle and passive, and only the context can guide you. So of course there are two interpretations: the passive is favored by those who believe God fills people with (the) Spirit and the middle is favored by those who believe people fill themselves with spirit. ...


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The Idea in Brief The two types of tongues are (a) those that are understood, and (b) those that are not understood. When the tongue is understood, the unbeliever will receive the warning concerning the "great things of God," which include the message of forgiveness and impending judgment (Day of the Lord). If the hearer is the believer, the same message ...


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With two exceptions, the Greek words seen in Acts 2:4-11; 1 Cor. 14:2-20, and translated into English as "tongue" or "tongues," are forms of the Greek verb ΓΛΩΣΣΑ (γλῶσσα, glossa). The implication is that glossa refers to a regional dialect or language spoken by someone has not naturally learned it. Glossa does not refer to the ecstatic (enraptured) praise ...


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Are their two different types of “tongues” spoke about in the NT? I believe it would be a misnomer to say that there are two different “types” of tongues. However, there are two separate and distinct “operations” of tongues. The Operation of Tongues The gift of speaking in tongues is seen to operate in two distinct ways: personal and corporate. Though ...


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"And Jesus ... was led by the Spirit in the wilderness for forty days, being tempted by the devil." There is no indication in the Greek text of Luke 4:1-14 that the Spirit left Jesus to fend for himself, even briefly, when he was πειραζόμενος ὑπὸ τοῦ διαβόλου ("tempted of the devil" in KJV). Ergo, the same motivation that moved him to go INTO the ...


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Mark 3:20-30 tells us how the Pharisees attributed Jesus' work to Satan. And yet this, according to Jesus, is forgivable: they have spoken a word against Jesus. However, anyone who blasphemes the Holy Spirit (i.e. attributes the work of the Spirit to evil), cannot be forgiven. Jn 16:8-11 And when He has come, He will convict the world of sin, and of ...


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The Greek scriptures use of the word ‘righteousness’ is greatly revised from the Hebrew usage, for it principally no longer means just an attribute of God, or conforming to God’s law but is a ‘means of salvation’. It is a righteousness ‘from God’ by faith. (Rom 1:17). We must presuppose this 'gospel' definition of righteousness as the previous verse argues ...



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