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The word "forgive*"(aphiemi-to send forth*) implies a legal action: it holds one 'harmless' from a legal debt. To be declared "aphiemi", means one's debt has been satisfied; in the case of Matt. 12:30-32, one's penalty of 'sin and blasphemy' shall be "aphiemi" them-following, of course, the prescription of 1 John 1:9,"If we confess our sins; He is faithful ...


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Answer to a part of your question. It could well be that John had access to what is now known as the Community Rule of the Dead Sea Scrolls as it was old enough, dating from the 2nd century BCE. In the third part it says: "He shall be cleansed from all his sins by the spirit of holiness uniting him to His truth . . . And when his flesh is sprinkled with ...


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Are their two different types of “tongues” spoke about in the NT? I believe it would be a misnomer to say that there are two different “types” of tongues. However, there are two separate and distinct “operations” of tongues. The Operation of Tongues The gift of speaking in tongues is seen to operate in two distinct ways: personal and corporate. Though ...


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I think I understand your question to be more basically asking: Why is there the singular "name" in this verse, and yet it is referring to 3 persons? In Matt. 28:19b "βαπτίζοντες αὐτοὺς εἰς τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ Πατρὸς καὶ τοῦ Υἱοῦ καὶ τοῦ Ἁγίου Πνεύματος", τὸ ὄνομα "the name" is an articular neuter accusative singular noun. It has to be so because the article τὸ ...


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Good question, and quite relevant, hermeneutically. My answer to your question is no. When Jesus commanded "the eleven" to baptize disciples "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit," He was not speaking of names, literally. Does God the Holy Spirit have a "real" name in the same way Jesus does? Well, we do have several biblical ...


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Preface: Since you asked for evidence from the text itself I will appeal to the text only in support of my assertions, which vary from Matthew Henry's commentary and IVP Commentary, both of which see Simon as seeking office/ to be equal, in authority, with the apostles. Simply observing the text: As you noted, Simon first observed the benefits/power of ...


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"And Jesus ... was led by the Spirit in the wilderness for forty days, being tempted by the devil." There is no indication in the Greek text of Luke 4:1-14 that the Spirit left Jesus to fend for himself, even briefly, when he was πειραζόμενος ὑπὸ τοῦ διαβόλου ("tempted of the devil" in KJV). Ergo, the same motivation that moved him to go INTO the ...


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Mark 3:20-30 tells us how the Pharisees attributed Jesus' work to Satan. And yet this, according to Jesus, is forgivable: they have spoken a word against Jesus. However, anyone who blasphemes the Holy Spirit (i.e. attributes the work of the Spirit to evil), cannot be forgiven. Jn 16:8-11 And when He has come, He will convict the world of sin, and of ...


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The Greek scriptures use of the word ‘righteousness’ is greatly revised from the Hebrew usage, for it principally no longer means just an attribute of God, or conforming to God’s law but is a ‘means of salvation’. It is a righteousness ‘from God’ by faith. (Rom 1:17). We must presuppose this 'gospel' definition of righteousness as the previous verse argues ...


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I think the answer can be deduced from the text itself. Here's the first part, itemized for clarity: (NASB) And He, when He comes, will convict the world concerning (A) sin and (B) righteousness and (C) judgment So the Spirit will bring conviction in three general areas. Next, Jesus gets more specific with each of these areas of conviction: ...


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You simply cannot determine gender based on the gender of a noun in any particular language. Otherwise the OT translation from Hebrew to Greek would totally switch the gender of the RUACH/PNEUMA. Which is silly. The context should determine who or what it really is. In this case RUACH is the power of the Creator. Even as the Hebrews understood it. Wisdom ...



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