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I can't seem to locate the passage but if memory serves the Anchor Bible volume "Joshua" reported that archaeology showed that there was a wasting disease in the area. Skeletal remains were found distorted. My memory isn't what it used to be so take that with a grain of salt. However, this is held forth by others as a legitimate reason: the STDs and ...


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It was God who ordered it It was God who made it possible by freeing the Hebrew slaves, preparing them in the wilderness, destroying the walls, sending hail etc So God did the real fighting. The Elohim have a longstanding war with the Nephilim as witnessed by the Fall, the Flood, Babel, Sodom etc. The Canaanites were destroyed because of wickedness. They ...


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It's important to first understand that it was prophesied that King David's wives would be violated in such a manner. 2 Samuel chapter 12 (NLT) The LORD sent Nathan the prophet to tell David ... ... The LORD, the God of Israel, says, 'I anointed you king of Israel and saved you from the power of Saul. I gave you his house and his wives and the ...


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Just a thought. When David's own daughter Tamar was raped by Amnon his son, she became a desolate woman. She was disgraced and lived in her brother Absalom's house. David was furious about what had happened to Tamar, but there appears to be no further consequences for Amnon. Absalom later kills Amnon (because of what he had done to beautiful Tamar). And ...


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Since Written Torah considered the Eternal Law, the phrases in Genesis are literal and mean today. For example, Beersheba is a fully legitimate city in modern Israel. What would be wrong with literal interpretation? Please note, that I can only speak for Written Torah. The rest of the Bible may not be talking literally.


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Since the Hebrew Scriptures had to be updated over the centuries to ancient Hebrew to post-exilic Hebrew, the scribes would naturally modernize the language. Do you think the tables of stone written at Mt. Sinai (possibly: proto-sinaitic, ancient Egyptian, Egyptian hierglyphs, Phoenician), that they had the same writing as post-exilic Hebrew? I suggest ...



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