Hot answers tagged hebrews
17
The author of Hebrews is quoting Habakkuk 2:4 from the Septuagint (as opposed to the Hebrew.)
In the Hebrew, this part of the verse would literally translate something like this:
"Behold the scornful; his mind shall not be happy" (Stuart)
(Part of the difficulty in translating Heb. 10:38 is that this is an English translation of a Greek interpretation ...
8
Several techniques that people use to establish literary dependence include:
Identical passages of several words or more
Unusual or unexpected words matching (especially usages that are idiosyncratic to one of the authors)
Overal structure matching
Matches in narrative or parenthetical material (this precludes the possibility that both are just quoting the ...
7
Authorship of Hebrews
Expansion of Pauline Authorship
The only overt clue as to the authorship is the reference to Timothy in Hebrews 13:23. This, in addition to the Eastern/Alexandrian tradition of Pauline authorship, led many to believe that Paul was the author. This is supported by significant uncial evidence that places Hebrews with other Pauline works ...
5
The Greek word used in Hebrews 6:4 is φωτισθέντας which is pronounced "phōtisthentas." This word looks nothing like the Greek word for "baptize"-βαπτίζω. I cannot address if the Syriac words for "enlightenment" and "baptism" look alike and would be likely to cause confusion.
What I do know is that textual criticism, the art/science of determining the ...
5
Let us consider first the merits of Rachab:
She was an outsider, a non-Jew, yet she recognized the God of Israel as true. It's hard enough for members of a community to act on their faith sometimes, and yet she did it from outside, without any of the usual societal support. And aligning with the people of Israel due to faith in God is quite novel at this ...
5
I Sam 12:11 in 4QSam Frg.d has only the word "Jerubal", the rest of the verse is missing.
Leningrad and Allepo have "...Jerubbaal and Bedan and Jephthah and Samuel...", same in Brenton's English LXX.
RASHI says Bedan is Samson as he was "in [the tribe of] Dan" ("b'Dan") or "of the tribe of Dan" ("ben Dan").
The targum has "...Gideon and Samson and Jephtah ...
4
In John Owen's introduction on his commentary on Hebrews, who argues against every known argument against Paul's authorship, concluding it was Paul, list a few of the other candidates. I very briefly summarized Owen's argument for Paul's authorship here. Why Paul probably wrote Hebrews.
These are the early candidates raised under this controversy:
...
4
This is not the standard word for fear, which would be phobos. Rather eulabeia, ultimately comes from the verb lambano, which has various meanings, but here captures the meaning of "to take."
Eulabeia has at its root the meaning of to take hold of, in the sense of devotion, taking hold of God. It is not a fear based thing, but a conscious choice. Examining ...
3
I hate to dump a lengthy quote here, but I have a great scholarly resource available on the meaning of this word that gives TONS of extrabiblical quotations. Here are a bunch of places it occurs in other literature:
συνείδησις, εως, ἡ (συνεῖδον)
① awareness of information about someth., consciousness (Democr.,
Fgm. 297 σ. τῆς κακοπραγμοσύνης; ...
3
Passages like this illustrate that hermeneutics as it is practiced is not a science, since the results are not reproducible. Determining the meaning of this (nor any) passage cannot be done in isolation of what the rest of scripture says.
If one has concluded from the rest of scripture that salvation cannot be lost, then this passage is made to support it ...
3
I think Monica has a superb answer so I do not intent to supplant her, but perhaps supplement.
Rahab has a couple of notable mentions in the New Testament: Hebrews 11 (which you've identified) and James 2. James 2 is almost more shocking than Hebrews 11 since she's held on par with Abraham as an example of saving faith.
Looking back at the actual story in ...
2
According to Liddell and Scott's lexicon, ἀρχηγός can mean1:
I. beginning, originating a thing, c. gen.
II. as Subst., like ἀρχηγέτης, founder, of a tutelary hero.2
2. a prince, chief.
3. a first cause, originator.
Of particular interest is "II. founder". Founders of companies and other institutions often get an extra level of respect. For ...
2
Sorry to just reproduce a source here, but it does a great job answering part of this question. See the image below from page 13 in The Lukan Authorship of Hebrews by David L. Allen & E. Ray Clendenen (2010).
Concerning how our interpretation of the text might change if the author was determined, I can only speculate, but I don't believe it would make ...
2
Beyond all possible doubt, the context is Christ as a High Priest. This is clear by a cursory review. Therefore, As we approach the High Priest's ministry we need to identify the prayers and supplications he performed -- then how they were answered.
The day of atonement brings the high point of this ministry into view. There were three beasts to be ...
2
One thing to keep in mind when drawing up a list of candidates is that we don't know the names of the vast majority of 1st century Christians. There's a very good chance that the author of Hebrews is not anyone we've ever heard of otherwise. No one thinks we know the name of the author of the Didache or 1 Clement (I'm picking non-canonical examples to avoid ...
2
The ones you have in bold are from two Psalms which were considered to have Messianic applications by the writer of Hebrews. He was arguing from the nature of Messiah that he was greater than angels. It seems that at the time the recipients of the letter had a high view of angels as above every possible person outside of God himself. As the writer really ...
2
Language is context.
The term that more tightly defines the context here is not radiance, but glory, which in the OT often referred not to a disembodied idea, but rather to the actual presence of God: on Mt. Sinai, in the tabernacle, in the Ark when it was stolen by the Philistines. The απ' αυγασμα, the "brightness coming out" of (not bouncing off) that ...
1
The same Greek aorist passive participle appears again in Hebrews 10:32, and is also translated as "baptized" in the Peshitta. That is, the Greek verb φωτίζω occurs 11 times in the New Testament in various conjugated forms, and in nine instances the Peshitta translates the verb as most English translations do (i.e., to show, to light up) with the exception ...
1
After pondering for some time I think it is fair to say that regardless of how the Greek is translated the answer may possibly be both at the same time. For in the context when Christ was to have all the sin of the world put upon him and then face the creator of the law and vindictive judge of all who break it what kind of reverence would he have of God if ...
1
I think the meaning is the same in both places. The reason for my thinking this way is that when considering Jesus at the right hand of the Father we ought to think primarily in terms of his human nature, for that alone was exalted to the Father's side as the new Adam and captain or leader of many men into salvation. His divine nature was always there.
The ...
1
I went over this with some pastors. They have the idea that the atonement in both Old and New Testaments do both, propitiate and expiate. But there is a problem here. Why are both done when only one is necessary? That is, if the purpose of atonement is to expiate (cover, cancel out, remove sin) then WHY would God still be angry? So, why did God provide ...
1
The Logos who was God became flesh, that is, he became visible in flesh (John 1:1,14; 1 Timothy 3:16). Jesus experienced obedience in actuality because as God he neither experienced obeying as man nor experienced suffering, for he only knew these things, but to do them in actuality is indeed a learning, i.e. experience.
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