Tag Info

New answers tagged

-1

I believe that the word כְּאָדָם in Hosea 6:7 may have been a clever play by the author to refer to both the city referred to in Joshua 3:16 and the Adam of Genesis. Throughout the book of Hosea, the author mentions several places which were identified as committing idolatry, sinning, or otherwise acting against G-d's will. These places include Samaria and ...


-3

The term "בראשית" (B'reishit) is used Jeremiah 26:1, Jeremiah 27:1, Jeremiah 28:1 and Jeremiah 49:34. If we are to be grammatically consistent, we would need to translate these as "In the initial period of the rain of Jehoiakim" Since this seems to be more awkward than "In the beginning", "In the beginning" is probably the best translation unless there is ...


-1

The problem with this verse is that it can mean one, or all three. The word "Adam" (אָדָם) is repeatedly translated throughout scripture as "man" or "mankind". In the first three chapters of Genesis, we see that the word Adam is always translated as "man" unless context indicates that "man" is referring to a proper individual in the story. In these instances ...


1

Prolegomena One interpretation; many applications. Solomon, the author of the proverb, was a king, as was Hezekiah, whose men transcribed the proverbs of SolomonSolomon's proverbs which are contained in our English chapters 25-29. The very nature of a proverb is to express a general truth of wide applicability in a pithy and memorable format. The focus ...


-1

I would suggest that the literal translation At Adam is perfectly legitimate, if we view it in the context of 1 Cor 15:22 "For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ all will be made alive." From a covenant perspective it appears there are two heads Adam and Christ. When Adam sinned all his progeny sinned, they being in him. There is a strong sense in which ...


-3

Hebrew roots shows seemingly unconnected words that one will learn are divinely connected. Shabbat shares roots with "sheva" which means "7" and sheb'ou'aw which means "oath" and "shebet" which is a branch or scion or stick for writing or ruling, and shaba, which mean to have plenty. By the same token, with Hebrew being a picture language, "Torah," an ...


1

Crucial pieces in this puzzle that I believe you are missing, scripture states many times that the Children of Israel walked in the MIDST OF THE SEA in Exodus 14 v 22, and God repeats this virtually word by word, 7 verses later in Chapter 14 v 29 Yes, congealed water is ice.... Why can so many not see the reality of what is said so plainly in scripture? Ice ...


1

The word appears as היליל in the Dead Sea Scrolls. The following view comes from Column XII, Line 12, of the Great Isaiah Scroll, and is the only appearance of this particular verse in Isaiah in its entirety among the Dead Sea Scrolls. Please click to enlarge. In the absence of any vowel points or cantillation marks, the Hebrew word היליל then appears ...


2

The appellative הֵילֵל occurs only in Is 14:12. It is believed to derive from the verb h-l-l ‘to shine’. However, an identically spelt הֵילֵל occurs as the imperative of the hiph. of the verb y-l-l 'howl' in Ez 21:17 and Zc 11:2. Alternatively, you could emend the vocalisation very slightly to הֵילִל ‘he howled’, which would be a reasonable name for a ...


0

it seems to me the more probable explanation is that Luke (written later) was embellishing the earlier Markan story for dramatic purposes, just as Mark 16:9-20 embellishes the original ending of Mark, and just as Matthew embellishes and corrects Mark. Occam's razor prefers this hypothesis, since there's no need to propose an unknown literary device to ...


2

The literary device at play here is not synecdoche, but literary dependence and elaboration. When the Gospels of Matthew, Mark and Luke are laid side by side and read synoptically ('with the same eye') in the original Greek language, it is clear that there is a literary dependency among them. Further study shows that Mark was the first to be written, with ...


8

There were two thieves reviling Jesus; one then repented. John Chrysostom, who was fluent in, and therefore familiar with, the Koine Greek of the New Testament, made no mention of the use of the grammar with regard to the apparent confusion and contradiction between the gospel accounts. Instead, he noted the following - Now that you may understand ...


2

I would argue that the word  אֲנָשִׁים can only be translated in two ways.  We can translate the word as "men," meaning a group of individuals, or as "man," in the sense of "mankind" or "humans."  I would probably use "men" as the translation since  אֲנָשִׁים is the plural of the word  אִישׁ which is the general term for an ...


0

Bible translators for any given version of the Bible (e.g., NIV, NASB, NKJV, RSV, NRSV, and so on) differ on how to translate a given word. Rather than being a reason for perplexity, these differences can potentially become a reason for gratitude. Why? Because they often give us a depth of meaning we could not otherwise appreciate. You're wondering which ...



Top 50 recent answers are included