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3

Not Sure One Can Give a Dogmatic Answer, But... Scripture does not ever give a total number of Lot's daughters. Indeed, the plural "sons-in-law" does not even need to imply two, so (assuming they were married, not just engaged) it could also be that Lot had more than four daughters, two at home and however many were married. However, BDB states that the ...


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Part of Jeremiah also makes reference to Rachel crying in the wilderness and being heard by God, although many men will try to claim that God doesn't hear the cries or the voices of women. The discussion regarding Ephraim is specifically in response to Rachel's crying, because Ephraim is of her lineage. He comforts her about Ephraim's response to ...


1

There is a connection! The common root of the noun for knee (berek) and the verb to bless (baruch) is ברן. We see the root in action when Eliezer comes to look for a wife for Isaac (Gen. 24:11), and comes to the well where he causes his camels to kneel down to drink after he sees Rebecca. The word used there is, "Vi'yavrach" (a derivative of "baruch") ...


2

The famous Jewish biblical commentator Rashi finds the choice of words very significant. He writes: According to the sequence of the language of the chapter, it should have been written, “the first day,” as it is written regarding the other days, “second, third, fourth.” Why did Scripture write “one”? Because the Holy One, blessed be He, was the only ...


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Because the word "chamisjim" is translated by Google Translate as "fifty" it has exactly the same meaning as the Arabian word "chamsin", that is the modern name for the eastern desert storm over Sinaï. The number fifty refers to the period in days when that Chamsin can be expected each year. Assuming that in Biblical times that storm was also known under ...


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Some Young Earth Creationists have argued that Genesis 1:5 uses a cardinal number 'one' to in effect define a 'one day', while verses 8 and 13 etc then use that definition with ordinals.


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There is no significance from the grammar with the change. According to Bruce Waltke1, though the noun yom in Genesis 1:5 lacks a definite article it should be treated as a definite noun. Following that statement, he says that the cardinal number echad ("one") should be treated as an ordinal wherever it modifies a definite noun (which in Hebrew would ...


1

The key word in this passage is קָדֵשׁ, which occurs in the singular and refers to the male (cult) prostitute and/or synecdoche for male (cult) prostitution, and the term in the masculine singular occurs six times in the Hebrew Bible where the context is moral abomination. The triliteral root means to consecrate, and, depending on the context (as well as the ...


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You do realise (I trust) that the verb bārakh “to bless” is not actually the same word as the noun bεrεkh “knee”, though they are written the same in unvocalised Hebrew script. But, historically they do seem to belong to the same root. In most Semitic languages the verb b-r-k means “to bow down to, praise, bless” (said of a man/woman praising/blessing a ...


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I have searched various Lexicons but there seems no clear connection between kneeling and blessing other then a general religious sense of the kneeling posture. However if we look at this good summary of uses of the word below we could trace a plausible link. bless = bestow power for success, prosperity, fertility: animals Gn 1:22, men 1:28, 7th day ...


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1. Use of the Hebrew word satan The Hebrew word satan means, in a general sense, 'opponent', 'adversary', or 'accuser'. As with any word in any language, satan does not have a one-size-fits-all application. It can mean different things in different contexts. In my answer on this question, I surveyed a few of the Hebrew texts that use the word satan. On one ...


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Sexual Immorality appears to be the following Four(4): Incest, Male Homosexuality in part but perhaps not in whole i.e. "sex with a man as with a woman", Bestiality (sex with animals), and Adultery i.e. a man having sex with another man's wife. Fornication would appear to encompass all these too. Rape is listed as a crime, but not sexually immoral unless it ...


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I think the simple reason for that this plural noun is translated into other languages as a singular noun is because it's being used with a singular verb. This would be comparable to saying "Ants is here to stay" instead of "Ants are here to stay". It turns this plural word ("ants") into a proper noun. In the Hebrew Bible Elohim, when meaning the God of ...


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Is this a significant scholarly position? Significant enough that it is discussed regularly in various scholarly places. For example, there is extensive discussion in a fairly recent work: D. A. Carson and Douglas J. Moo, An Introduction to the New Testament, 2nd ed. (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 2005), 142-150 (hereafter referred to as C&M). In that ...


5

There are a few scattered scholars who did believe this, though it is certainly not the prevailing opinion. The Wikipedia article, as well as most Biblical Encyclopedias, write that the text of Matthew doesn't look like a translation. However, at least a few scholars did believe that the Gospel of Matthew was first written in Hebrew. The Wikipedia article ...


3

There is no textual evidence to suggest that the Gospel we call "Matthew" was written in Hebrew, as opposed to Greek. The only scrap of evidence for this view is a statement made by Eusebius (an early Christian historian) that "Matthew collected the saying of Jesus in the Hebrew Language." It is not clear at all that this statement refers to the book we now ...



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