New answers tagged

2

Leon R. Kass, in The Beginning of Wisdom, page 27, agrees that because the Hebrew lacks the definite article, the popular translation, “In the beginning” is incorrect. He cites Robert Alter (Genesis Translation and Commentary), who treats the first (and second) verse not as a declarative sentence but as a subordinate clause: “When God began to create heaven ...


0

Yes, they are the same place. I would also like to add that a possible reason why Mitzrayim might be in the Hebrew dual form is because Egypt/Mitzrayim consisted of two parts: Upper & Lower Egypt. Just a theory I have!


1

The reason that the translations are all over the map is: Some Hebrew manuscripts connect the first word of the following verse with the last word of Psalm 42:5, yielding the phrase "My ever-present help, my God" The meaning of the Hebrew of Psalm 42:11 is uncertain. The above is pointed out in the apparatus of the JPS Tanakh in the Oxford Jewish Study ...


4

Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"? Yes. Ashraf Ezzat is making a bizarre claim. Here's the relevant information from the Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, volume 8, p. 520:


0

It appears that the Christian understanding of the verse is different from the Jewish: The whole temple he overlaid with gold, until he had finished all the temple; also he overlaid with gold the entire altar that was by the inner sanctuary. (1 Kings 6:22 NKJV) So that the entire House was overlaid with gold; he even overlaid with gold the entire ...


1

The Name revealed in Ex 3:14 explains the meaning of the Tetragrammaton, either directly or indirectly depending on how the latter is vocalized. We have to take into account two properties of Hebrew verbs: stem and form. A verb stem is an offshoot of the root that is used to indicate the properties of voice and aspect. The relevant stems here are: Qal ...


1

Why oh why do we continue to share ignorance and ignore the scholarship of those teachers who have gone before us? Is it remarkable to suppose that someone in the 6,000 year history of mankind had the same question? That maybe some commentators who are experts in actual hermeneutics and Hebrew and Greek have already authoritatively answered this question? ...


0

I stumbled upon the same verse and lexical information today and couldn't help thinking of a (contemporary/rabbinical) Jewish wedding when a woman will encircle her groom 7 times representing that they are creating a new home, world, and reality together. I am a woman, and the idea of turning about or "revolving" around the desires, purposes and calling of ...


-1

If we translate "in" into "out", then we will not have resurrection body when Christ is coming again. That means that we are not resurrected. No! We have the hope of resurrection so 'without" should be 'in'


4

I believe the answer to your question is no, the writers of the New Testament did not rely on the Hebrew text. The recently published Eastern Orthodox Bible New Testament footnotes every single Old Testament quote and assesses whether the quote agrees with the Greek Septuagint rather than the Masoretic Text, which is supposedly a faithful representation of ...


1

The Idea in Brief The plural form (maḥămaddîm) is not literary, but is to be understood in the literal sense. That is, Jewish sages over the centuries did not understand the plural form here in any literary (or abstract) sense, but in the most literal way. In this regard, the plural suffix was in reference to sweet words (plural) that emanate from the ...


4

The plural noun in classical Hebrew can do other "non-number" jobs than simply the plural of "majesty". One common one is the "plural of abstraction", and that is the way maḥămaddîm is typically understood here. Waltke-O'Connor para. 7.4.2(a) further refine this as refering to qualities: Cf. Joüon-Muraoka, who explain it precisely the same way: a "plural ...


0

The suffix 'im' is very common in this passage and throughout Song of Songs, as there are a lot of plurals present throughout. 'His mouth is most sweet' is also conjugated in the plural here, as are many other words throughout this section of Song of Solomon. In each case, the plural isn't about majesty but rather intensity - it helps the text to flow ...


0

We do not actually have the original Hebrew to judge the NLT by. What we have is essentially a transliteration into a later form of Hebrew that was compiled in the Middle Ages. I think others have addressed the question of whether the Masoretic Hebrew (not the original Hebrew) is correctly represented, and defer to the Masoretes to have transliterated ...


2

The phrase “because no” (על לא) does not appear to have any particular vowel pointing nuance or exceptions of spelling in Hebrew Scripture, however the Masoretic scholars noted that the phrase “because no” occurs three times in the Masoretic Text. (Please see the middle column on Masoretic note on Page 486 of the Codex Leningradis online.) Notwithstanding ...


2

The Hebrew phrase לֹא חָמָס עָשָׂה (loʾ chāmās ʿāsāh) could possibly suggest that the individual did not commit a crime (i.e., act of violence) that warranted being imprisoned and sentenced to death (e.g., committing murder),1 without necessarily suggesting that he was a righteous or innocent man. However, the prophet Isaiah also describes this individual as ...


-2

I feel like the writer is referring to a body of water literally under the earth as in space, I don't know why but I feel confident that this is what he means.


1

You are right in saying both Hebrew and Greek words just mean "messenger". The English word "angel" is transliterated from αγγελος. All passages containing "messenger" make most sense when looking see what the actual "message" is that is being brought by the "messenger". The message is more important that the one who brings it. Related Strongs Numbers ...



Top 50 recent answers are included