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The plural noun in classical Hebrew can do other "non-number" jobs than simply the plural of "majesty". One common one is the "plural of abstraction", and that is the way maḥămaddîm is typically understood here. Waltke-O'Connor para. 7.4.2(a) further refine this as refering to qualities: Cf. Joüon-Muraoka, who explain it precisely the same way: a "plural ...


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I believe the answer to your question is no, the writers of the New Testament did not rely on the Hebrew text. The recently published Eastern Orthodox Bible New Testament footnotes every single Old Testament quote and assesses whether the quote agrees with the Greek Septuagint rather than the Masoretic Text, which is supposedly a faithful representation of ...


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Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"? Yes. Ashraf Ezzat is making a bizarre claim. Here's the relevant information from the Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, volume 8, p. 520:


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The phrase “because no” (על לא) does not appear to have any particular vowel pointing nuance or exceptions of spelling in Hebrew Scripture, however the Masoretic scholars noted that the phrase “because no” occurs three times in the Masoretic Text. (Please see the middle column on Masoretic note on Page 486 of the Codex Leningradis online.) Notwithstanding ...


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The Hebrew phrase לֹא חָמָס עָשָׂה (loʾ chāmās ʿāsāh) could possibly suggest that the individual did not commit a crime (i.e., act of violence) that warranted being imprisoned and sentenced to death (e.g., committing murder),1 without necessarily suggesting that he was a righteous or innocent man. However, the prophet Isaiah also describes this individual as ...


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Leon R. Kass, in The Beginning of Wisdom, page 27, agrees that because the Hebrew lacks the definite article, the popular translation, “In the beginning” is incorrect. He cites Robert Alter (Genesis Translation and Commentary), who treats the first (and second) verse not as a declarative sentence but as a subordinate clause: “When God began to create heaven ...


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The reason that the translations are all over the map is: Some Hebrew manuscripts connect the first word of the following verse with the last word of Psalm 42:5, yielding the phrase "My ever-present help, my God" The meaning of the Hebrew of Psalm 42:11 is uncertain. The above is pointed out in the apparatus of the JPS Tanakh in the Oxford Jewish Study ...


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The Idea in Brief The plural form (maḥămaddîm) is not literary, but is to be understood in the literal sense. That is, Jewish sages over the centuries did not understand the plural form here in any literary (or abstract) sense, but in the most literal way. In this regard, the plural suffix was in reference to sweet words (plural) that emanate from the ...


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The Name revealed in Ex 3:14 explains the meaning of the Tetragrammaton, either directly or indirectly depending on how the latter is vocalized. We have to take into account two properties of Hebrew verbs: stem and form. A verb stem is an offshoot of the root that is used to indicate the properties of voice and aspect. The relevant stems here are: Qal ...


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Why oh why do we continue to share ignorance and ignore the scholarship of those teachers who have gone before us? Is it remarkable to suppose that someone in the 6,000 year history of mankind had the same question? That maybe some commentators who are experts in actual hermeneutics and Hebrew and Greek have already authoritatively answered this question? ...



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