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In the article Hebrew Henotheism: Challenging the notion of Biblical Monotheism, the case is made that the Shema was to be understood relationally with Israel. The 1985 edition of the Jewish Publication Society translation of the TaNaKH portrays this when they translate the verse as “Hear, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD alone.” This reading ...


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Most scholars who believe that Ancient Israel was henotheistic also accept some for of the Documentary Hypothesis and therefore assume that Deuteronomy, including the Shema, was written at a later date, after the Israelites had switched from henotheism to monotheism. (The DH does not assume that the theology is consistent across different parts of the Hebrew ...


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Since Written Torah considered the Eternal Law, the phrases in Genesis are literal and mean today. For example, Beersheba is a fully legitimate city in modern Israel. What would be wrong with literal interpretation? Please note, that I can only speak for Written Torah. The rest of the Bible may not be talking literally.


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Since the Hebrew Scriptures had to be updated over the centuries to ancient Hebrew to post-exilic Hebrew, the scribes would naturally modernize the language. Do you think the tables of stone written at Mt. Sinai (possibly: proto-sinaitic, ancient Egyptian, Egyptian hierglyphs, Phoenician), that they had the same writing as post-exilic Hebrew? I suggest ...


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Your Title question doesn’t make clear which manuscripts you’re referring to – Masoretic texts, Septuagint ones, Koine Greek, original autographs, copies, translated ones, e.g. the Latin Vulgate? What do you mean when you say ‘written’? Do you mean what type of paper/parchment were they written on? Were they written in uncials or miniscules? Were they in ...



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