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22

“If their approach was the same I assume they would come to the same theological conclusions” Texts that aren't dense legalese, e.g. books like the Bible which contain stories, parables, philosophies and statues, are necessarily rich with ambiguity and mystery. There is no way that a book like the Bible could unambiguously inform any ...


20

Before 1947, a good case could be made that the Septuagint represented a more ancient tradition than the Masoretic versions of the Tanakh. Since the Septuagint was produced before 132 BCE (and probably in the 3rd century BCE) and the earliest known Masoretic manuscripts date to the 10th century CE, the Greek translation might have fossilized an early ...


18

Excellent question! The Septuagint (LXX) was the version of the Bible used by the authors of the New Testament. Therefore, the authors sometimes quote the Septuagint rather than the Masoretic (Hebrew) text. One example: Matthew 1:23 NRSV "Look, the virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and they shall name him Emmanuel," which means, "God is with ...


13

In general the Tanakh is the same as the Christian Old Testament. The differences are: Some Christians use a few extra books, which are called deuterocanonical (or apocrypha, by those who reject them). These books are found in the earliest Greek translation of the Tanakh, but were later rejected by the rabbis. The books of the Tanakh are usually printed ...


12

In Judaism the final decision of which writings (Ketuvim, the third part of the Tanakh) were canonical did not happen until at least the end of the 1st century CE. This was after Christianity and Judaism had largely split, and so the two groups made different decisions about which writings were accepted as canonical. In particular, nascent Rabbinic Judaism ...


11

The basic difference is Jesus Christ. That may sound trite or rude, but it needn't be. A Christian hermeneutic that is faithful to itself will base its reading of the Old Testament on the way Jesus and the Apostles used the Old Testament. This hermeneutic was rather shocking even to Jesus' disciples (i.e. Christians) even at that time (and I assume Jewish ...


11

When scripture refers to Yehuda ("Judah") and Yisra'el ("Israel") in the same verse, it is often because it is not referring to individual tribes (of which Yehuda was one), but rather, the two kingdoms into which the people of Yisra'el were split during the reign of King Rechav'am ("Rehoboam"), the son of King Shlomo ("Solomon"). This fracture was a ...


9

Hermeneutic Circle Part of the problem that this question has suffered is known as the hermeneutic circle. The idea is that we use the text of the Bible to determine our doctrine. However, in order to interpret the text of the Bible, we have to come from a doctrinal predisposition. When we approach hermeneutics seeking to understand a particular ...


9

The short answer is "No". Perhaps there is a little confusion at work here, because this verse is embedded in one of the Aramaic passages found in the (otherwise) Hebrew Bible: it is not in Hebrew.1 The "-ah" ending that makes this look like "prophetess" (if the word was in Hebrew), is in fact the Aramaic definite article, = "the". (See heading 2.2, bullet ...


9

In the Hebrew Scriptures, death was "dirty." For example, contact with anything dead (whether animal or man) made the Israelite unclean in the ritual sense. Thus any scavenger was not appropriate for human consumption, since such animals consumed the refuse and/or carcasses of other animals. Only animals who chewed the cud (and split the hoof) were consumed ...


8

Here is a chart which gives a comparison of the books and order: (source website) The other important thing to remember is that the Jewish Tanach exists primarily in Hebrew and is augmented by commentary from within the Jewish tradition. Any translation, especially one whose translation was influenced by other theologies will deviate in terms of content. ...


8

The Greek translation of Jewish scripture (the Septuagint) occurred between the 3rd and 1st centuries BCE. The canon of the Tanakh was finalized hundreds of years later. The Christian canon was debated from the 4th to the 16th centuries. We have a tendency of thinking of the Bible as written in stone, so to speak, but the canon has been the object of ...


8

Short Answer: "Generally it is the only translation" (but it is complicated) First, there are two (three?) different words in the references you give. The Nephilim (נְפִילִים; a word only ever found in plural form in OT) only appears three times in Gen 6:4 and Num 13:33 (twice). The word in 1 Ch 20:8 (also 1 Ch 20:6 and 1 Ch 8:2; cf. also 1 Ch 4:12) is ...


8

The short answer to your questions is that none of these books have survived. This is not surprising; a very large number of books existed in the ancient world of which only a tiny minority have been preserved till now. But specifically to your first example: the Greek historian Ctesias claimed to have known the royal notebooks (basilikaì diphthérai), “in ...


7

Gen 22:17 That in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the sea shore; God promised Abraham that his descendants would be as the sand of the sea, and as the stars of heaven. These two metaphors are in direct apposition to each other, and explain each other. The ...


7

Background The NET Bible has a useful translator's note on the introduction of the name in Exodus 3:14: The verb form used here is אֶהְיֶה (’ehyeh), the Qal imperfect, first person common singular, of the verb הָיָה (haya, “to be”). It forms an excellent paronomasia with the name. So when God used the verb to express his name, he used this form saying, ...


7

Jews and Christians both consider the Tanakh to be important scripture (usually seen as of divine origin, though individual denominations/movements may vary). They differ in how they derive meaning from that text, however. In this answer I'm going to describe some approaches used by each group, but it's important to note that there isn't much that's ...


7

IMO it is a mistake to consider the LXX too noteworthy. The NT authors quote from it under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, however that should not be taken to imply that the LXX translation as a whole is inspired. Wouldn't it be better to reference the Hebrew original? Yes, except when dealing with the NT quotations in question. And translators are ...


7

One of the most important aspects of the Septuagint is that it helps us understand how Greek was used by Jews in the 3rd century BC to talk about God and the Scriptures. This turns it into a valuable tool to look at the Greek of the NT and understand how to translate and examine it. Here is an excerpt from a Christianity.SE answer that I provided to ...


7

In Hebrew all nouns are either masculine or feminine; there is no neuter. Verbs, adjectives, and pronouns associated with a noun must match in grammatical gender. In the case of the divine name (YHVH) these words use the masculine gender. So grammatically, God is masculine. This does not mean, however, that God is actually male (white-haired and elderly ...


7

Because Jacob encountered God (YHWH) that Night The Meaning of Face to Face The phrase "face to face" in the Hebrew (פָּנִ֣ים אֶל־פָּנִ֔ים) uses the plural form of the word פָּנֶה (paneh; "face").1 However, it would not necessarily be proper to translate it then "faces to faces," because the word is always found in the plural form in Hebrew.2 This is ...


6

The reason I most often use the LXX is to find the concept the NT authors were using. Yes, they wrote in Greek, but they were thinking Jewish thoughts. Many times, you can take the Greek words in the NT, find them in the LXX, and see what Hebrew words they translated. For example, the word ecclesia is used in the NT in Matthew 16:18 and 18:17. Some argue ...


6

This will be a partial answer, intended primarily as a supplement to this answer, since she mentioned that she is an expert in Jewish approaches but not in Christian approaches. (I can't add anything to her answer on Jewish approaches, so I won't bother trying to cover that material!) There are a variety of Christian approaches to the TaNaKh (i.e. the ...


6

A basic hermenuetical rule for any text is that the surface meaning is the correct reading of a text unless other evidence shows otherwise. If I say I'll finish something by the end of the day, you expect me to be done within the current 24-hour period. I would be either a nut or a liar if I explained that my "day" is actually 1,000 years metaphorically. ...


6

Others have already responded as far as the grammar and God being masculine there. So I focus on your question as to whether there are other evidences of God's masculinity. Since you've asked about the Hebrew language, I'll limit my remarks to Hebrew texts. Before I begin to look at various themes, it's worth noting that nothing can be said about God's ...


6

By way of supplementing and extending the answers already provided for this question: As noted elsewhere in this Q&A, the kingdom that was united under the thrones of Saul, David, and Solomon, split in the aftermath of Solomon's reign into distinct "nations": one in the north, and one in the south (narrated in 1 Kings 12). When the two designations ...


5

The Hebrew word here is כרת‎ (karet). The precise meaning is uncertain, but it seems to be a punishment at the hands of heaven, not one that a human court hands down. Depending on whom you ask, this might be an early death (at the age of 50, according to one talmudic opinion), extinction of the soul (spiritual, not physical, punishment), or a punishment in ...


5

What does aman mean when it doesn't mean “faith/belief”? But Moses' hands were heavy; and they took a stone and put it under him, and he sat thereon. And Aaron and Hur held up his hands, the one on the one side and the other on the other side; and his hands were steady (emunah, אמונה) until the going down of the sun. -Exodus 17:12, KJV The ...


5

They also show us that the canon was settled long before Jamnia. In the scrolls, we have at least partial copies of every book in the Old Testament except Esther. We also have many scrolls that are not canonical, however, even that teaches us something. Their literature can be broken down into three types. (The percentages are from my seminary notes with ...


5

It's unlikely that John intended the phrase to refer to the "day of the Lord" as found in the prophets. While the phrase found in Revelation 1:10 isn't found elsewhere in the New Testament, the phrase "day of the Lord" is found in several places. When the phrase is used elsewhere in the New Testament, the grammar matches that found in the prophets. In 1 ...



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