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12

The Greek text of Philippians 4:3 according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) states, καὶ ἐρωτῶ καὶ σέ σύζυγε γνήσιε συλλαμβάνου αὐταῖς αἵτινες ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ συνήθλησάν μοι μετὰ καὶ Κλήμεντος καὶ τῶν λοιπῶν συνεργῶν μου ὧν τὰ ὀνόματα ἐν βίβλῳ ζωῆς The Greek word σύζυγε is declined in the feminine/masculine gender, vocative case, and singular ...


10

Short answer The greek word translated as "babbler" in Acts 17:18 is a piece of Athenian slang, meaning: "an empty speaker, an ignorant, a vulgar plagiarist", commonly used to define those bad preachers of the rabble, from the street-corners of the market place. For Paul as a man, it's an insulting word. For Paul as a preacher, it's an diminishing word. ...


9

Katatomē in Philippians 3:2 means "mutilation". It isn't used elsewhere in the New Testament, nor is the cognate verb κατατέμνω. However, the latter is used four times in the LXX. A glance over the three that correspond closely to the Hebrew (and thus to the English I'm able to pull up at Biblegateway) will give you an idea about the background associations ...


7

It is correct to say that σύζυγος (literally “yoke-mate, one of a pair”) can be masculine or feminine, and that it is very often used to mean “wife” in classical and post-classical Greek. But in this passage it is modified by the adjective γνήσιε, which is unmistakeably masculine singular vocative. Thus, “wife” is not possible here. Anyway, as you point ...


5

As noted in other answers, the meaning of גֹּפֶר seems lost to us, and any translation must therefore be speculative. To support the translation "cypress", however, consider the following extract from Beekes/Van Beek, Etymological Dictionary of Greek: κυπάρισσος [f.] 'cypress' (ε 64). <PG(V)> - VAR Att. -ιττος. [...] - ETYM Clearly a Pre-Greek ...


4

The OP asks specifically about extra-biblical resources available for exploring the meaning of rare words in the Bible. The lexical situation is very different when considering Classical Hebrew and Koine Greek, so I will consider those separately. First, a few general remarks about Biblical word studies: The best resource for English readers to understand ...


3

ותצחק שרה and laughing Sarah בקרבה within herself לאמר to say אחרי בלתי after I am without/lack היתה לי her-exist/become of me עדנה her-make-pleasure ואדני זקן and my lord-husband is bearded/old You should simply read the passage at its face value. Sarah laughing within herself to say, after I lack/lose my liveliness, have pleasure and my ...


3

This seems to be one where the translations, lexicons, and commentaries are in broad agreement: it's meant temporally. The syntax of the verse εἰς τὸ εἶναι ἡμᾶς εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης αὐτοῦ τοὺς προηλπικότας ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ. so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory. (ESV) In this rendering, τοὺς προηλπικότας ...


3

It's worth reading Gesenius's interpretation of מֶשֶׁק here. He identifies מֶשֶׁק (mesheq) with מֶשֶׁךְ (meshek - defined here) in its meaning of "possession." He views the unusual form of מֶשֶׁק, with a koph instead of a caph for the last letter, as a pun ("paronomasia") to go with with דַּמֶּשֶׂק (Dammeseq), "Damascus." Gesenius rejects the interpretation ...


3

The original question contained a link to the interesting article by Rendsburg 1988: http://jewishstudies.rutgers.edu/docman/rendsburg/64-the-mock-of-baal-in-1-kings-18-27/file Has anyone else looked at it? The author argues that śiăḥ and śiḡ are a hendiadys. śiḡ or siḡ is well-known in the meaning “go away, step aside”, and can thus reasonably be ...


1

A lexicon is the tool of choice for identifying the meaning of words and their semantic domains. These tools assume knowledge of the language as words have different meanings depending on their morphology, syntax, and context. A Note on Most Freely Available Public Domain Greek-English Lexica "...in 1895, Adolf Deissmann published his Bibelstudien - an ...


1

Question Restatement In Hebrews 4:9, what does the word "σαββατισμὸς, sabbatismos" mean, and what is the methodology to interpret / translate this word? Hebrews 4:9, NASB- So there remains a "Sabbath rest, (σαββατισμὸς)" for the people of God. Issues: Sabbath, is not a Greek expression, but rather a Hebrew one. The word "rest" is not actually in the ...


1

Who is ἀναίδεια attributed to? Luke 11:8 λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ καὶ οὐ δώσει αὐτῷ ἀναστὰς διὰ τὸ εἶναι φίλον αὐτοῦ, διά γε τὴν ἀναίδειαν αὐτοῦ ἐγερθεὶς δώσει αὐτῷ ὅσων χρῄζει. Grammatically it is possible to read the second "αὐτοῦ" (his) as referring to either the slumbering man or his nocturnal supplicant. Neither reading will materially change the teaching of the ...



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