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9

Yes, it is the common practice to translate from the original language into the some word in the destination language rather than leaving it as the source language. Words like this are notoriously difficult to translate because the interpreters have to pick some word in the destination language that will make sense to the readers of that language. ...


8

Though I wouldn't argue for these being un-pauline, the scenario is quite plausible even if I don't find the arguments convincing. As you mention, language is often brought up as an argument. I've seen a few decent refutations of this arguments both from a statistically and methodologically, so I find it unconvincing. But people still repeat it as a reason. ...


7

The NET Bible translator's notes: The precise meaning of לִּילִית (lilit) is unclear, though in this context the word certainly refers to some type of wild animal or bird. The word appears to be related to לַיְלָה (laylah, “night”). Some interpret it as the name of a female night demon, on the basis of an apparent Akkadian cognate used as the name of a ...


7

Bruce M. Metzger writes in Bibliotheca Sacra 150 (July-September 1993) (pp 277–278): The great majority of these hapax legomena occur also in other Greek sources, and so the meaning of most of them is not often in dispute. The meaning, however, of a word in the Lord's Prayer as recorded in Matthew 6:11 and Luke 11:3 has often been debated. Does ...


7

ὁ κηρύσσων μὴ κλέπτειν κλέπτεις; He who preaches to not steal, do you steal? ὁ λέγων μὴ μοιχεύειν μοιχεύεις; He who says to not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? ὁ βδελυσσόμενος τὰ εἴδωλα ἱεροσυλεῖς; He who abhors idols, do you [X]? As you mentioned, there is a clear opposition between the former clause and the latter clause ...


5

The question as posed by OP -- concerning aspects of the "πολύσπλαγχνος + οἰκτίρμων" pair in James 5:11 -- has all the seeds of its own answer. First, the relevant bit of text: NA28 ... πολύσπλαγχνός ἐστιν ὁ κύριος καὶ οἰκτίρμων. NRSV ... the Lord is compassionate and merciful. I'll take the interrelated sub-questions in a slightly different order. ...


5

We have no records of the word being used prior to the Lord's prayer. The NET Bible translates: 6:11 Give us today our daily bread They then note that other potentially valid translations would include “Give us bread today for the coming day,” or “Give us today the bread we need for today.” Unfortunately, the Greek term appears only in early ...


4

This is not really a direct answer to the question so much as some tangential musing on the Hebrew alphabet and "unknown" words, specifically as they relate to this passage. However, it might also lend some support to the "cypress" translation as well. Gopher/cypress: Strongs H1613 גֹּפֶר gphr / go'fer; "from an unused root, probably meaning to house in". ...


4

I think the "meaning" of this word in the context is that Yahweh (God) will lift the curse from the ground. The thorns and thistles (nettles) are the result of the curse on the ground. Isaiah is prophesying that there will be a time when these products of the curse of the ground will be removed, and then substituted with "living" plants that actually bear ...


4

I guess we are into Bible trivia here but it is an unidentified desert plant. It apparently comes from the root word סָרַף which means to burn. Therefore it was probably a prickly bush/plant that 'burned' when one was pricked by it. It is not used anywhere else in the Bible.


4

I'm going to address your direct question of how a text could be accepted as Pauline if Paul didn't write it. I won't go into the specifics of the arguments for or against Pauline authorship of the Pastorals. Types of Authorship In ancient times the concept of authorship was different from what it is today. There were at least five different types of ...


3

This seems to be one where the translations, lexicons, and commentaries are in broad agreement: it's meant temporally. The syntax of the verse εἰς τὸ εἶναι ἡμᾶς εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης αὐτοῦ τοὺς προηλπικότας ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ. so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory. (ESV) In this rendering, τοὺς προηλπικότας ...


2

ותצחק שרה and laughing Sarah בקרבה within herself לאמר to say אחרי בלתי after I am without/lack היתה לי her-exist/become of me עדנה her-make-pleasure ואדני זקן and my lord-husband is bearded/old You should simply read the passage at its face value. Sarah laughing within herself to say, after I lack/lose my liveliness, have pleasure and my ...


2

It's worth reading Gesenius's interpretation of מֶשֶׁק here. He identifies מֶשֶׁק (mesheq) with מֶשֶׁךְ (meshek - defined here) in its meaning of "possession." He views the unusual form of מֶשֶׁק, with a koph instead of a caph for the last letter, as a pun ("paronomasia") to go with with דַּמֶּשֶׂק (Dammeseq), "Damascus." Gesenius rejects the interpretation ...


1

I have a feeling that regardless of how one translates the parable, there is truth in each translation. Is, perhaps, one translation closer to the truth which Luke and Jesus intended to communicate? Probably. To me, the important thing is that a translation (and later, an interpretation) fits the context (and all that that entails!). The Importance of ...


1

Who is ἀναίδεια attributed to? Luke 11:8 λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ καὶ οὐ δώσει αὐτῷ ἀναστὰς διὰ τὸ εἶναι φίλον αὐτοῦ, διά γε τὴν ἀναίδειαν αὐτοῦ ἐγερθεὶς δώσει αὐτῷ ὅσων χρῄζει. Grammatically it is possible to read the second "αὐτοῦ" (his) as referring to either the slumbering man or his nocturnal supplicant. Neither reading will materially change the teaching of the ...


1

The original Hebrew text reads בקרת תהיה, “there shall be biqoreth”. This last word is variously translated as “investigation” or “punishment”, but it seems only the KJV applies this specifically to the woman. The Hebrew text doesn’t support this at all, so it’s unclear why the KJV translates the text this way. Perhaps this was a mistake; perhaps they had a ...



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