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12

The Greek text of Philippians 4:3 according to the Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550) states, καὶ ἐρωτῶ καὶ σέ σύζυγε γνήσιε συλλαμβάνου αὐταῖς αἵτινες ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ συνήθλησάν μοι μετὰ καὶ Κλήμεντος καὶ τῶν λοιπῶν συνεργῶν μου ὧν τὰ ὀνόματα ἐν βίβλῳ ζωῆς The Greek word σύζυγε is declined in the feminine/masculine gender, vocative case, and singular ...


10

Short answer The greek word translated as "babbler" in Acts 17:18 is a piece of Athenian slang, meaning: "an empty speaker, an ignorant, a vulgar plagiarist", commonly used to define those bad preachers of the rabble, from the street-corners of the market place. For Paul as a man, it's an insulting word. For Paul as a preacher, it's an diminishing word. ...


10

Yes, it is the common practice to translate from the original language into the some word in the destination language rather than leaving it as the source language. Words like this are notoriously difficult to translate because the interpreters have to pick some word in the destination language that will make sense to the readers of that language. ...


9

Katatomē in Philippians 3:2 means "mutilation". It isn't used elsewhere in the New Testament, nor is the cognate verb κατατέμνω. However, the latter is used four times in the LXX. A glance over the three that correspond closely to the Hebrew (and thus to the English I'm able to pull up at Biblegateway) will give you an idea about the background associations ...


8

Though I wouldn't argue for these being un-pauline, the scenario is quite plausible even if I don't find the arguments convincing. As you mention, language is often brought up as an argument. I've seen a few decent refutations of this arguments both from a statistically and methodologically, so I find it unconvincing. But people still repeat it as a reason. ...


7

It is correct to say that σύζυγος (literally “yoke-mate, one of a pair”) can be masculine or feminine, and that it is very often used to mean “wife” in classical and post-classical Greek. But in this passage it is modified by the adjective γνήσιε, which is unmistakeably masculine singular vocative. Thus, “wife” is not possible here. Anyway, as you point ...


7

The NET Bible translator's notes: The precise meaning of לִּילִית (lilit) is unclear, though in this context the word certainly refers to some type of wild animal or bird. The word appears to be related to לַיְלָה (laylah, “night”). Some interpret it as the name of a female night demon, on the basis of an apparent Akkadian cognate used as the name of a ...


7

Bruce M. Metzger writes in Bibliotheca Sacra 150 (July-September 1993) (pp 277–278): The great majority of these hapax legomena occur also in other Greek sources, and so the meaning of most of them is not often in dispute. The meaning, however, of a word in the Lord's Prayer as recorded in Matthew 6:11 and Luke 11:3 has often been debated. Does ...


7

ὁ κηρύσσων μὴ κλέπτειν κλέπτεις; He who preaches to not steal, do you steal? ὁ λέγων μὴ μοιχεύειν μοιχεύεις; He who says to not commit adultery, do you commit adultery? ὁ βδελυσσόμενος τὰ εἴδωλα ἱεροσυλεῖς; He who abhors idols, do you [X]? As you mentioned, there is a clear opposition between the former clause and the latter clause ...


5

Good question! The Greek ending -σμος makes a noun out of a verb. The verb "σαββατιζω", as used by Plutarch and Justin Martyr about keeping the sabbath, therefore becomes "the result of keeping the sabbath". In a similar way, "inflate", the act of increasing the size of something, becomes "inflation", the result of increasing the size of something. It ...


5

The question as posed by OP -- concerning aspects of the "πολύσπλαγχνος + οἰκτίρμων" pair in James 5:11 -- has all the seeds of its own answer. First, the relevant bit of text: NA28 ... πολύσπλαγχνός ἐστιν ὁ κύριος καὶ οἰκτίρμων. NRSV ... the Lord is compassionate and merciful. I'll take the interrelated sub-questions in a slightly different order. ...


5

We have no records of the word being used prior to the Lord's prayer. The NET Bible translates: 6:11 Give us today our daily bread They then note that other potentially valid translations would include “Give us bread today for the coming day,” or “Give us today the bread we need for today.” Unfortunately, the Greek term appears only in early ...


5

As noted in other answers, the meaning of גֹּפֶר seems lost to us, and any translation must therefore be speculative. To support the translation "cypress", however, consider the following extract from Beekes/Van Beek, Etymological Dictionary of Greek: κυπάρισσος [f.] 'cypress' (ε 64). <PG(V)> - VAR Att. -ιττος. [...] - ETYM Clearly a Pre-Greek ...


4

This is not really a direct answer to the question so much as some tangential musing on the Hebrew alphabet and "unknown" words, specifically as they relate to this passage. However, it might also lend some support to the "cypress" translation as well. Gopher/cypress: Strongs H1613 גֹּפֶר gphr / go'fer; "from an unused root, probably meaning to house in". ...


4

I think the "meaning" of this word in the context is that Yahweh (God) will lift the curse from the ground. The thorns and thistles (nettles) are the result of the curse on the ground. Isaiah is prophesying that there will be a time when these products of the curse of the ground will be removed, and then substituted with "living" plants that actually bear ...


4

I guess we are into Bible trivia here but it is an unidentified desert plant. It apparently comes from the root word סָרַף which means to burn. Therefore it was probably a prickly bush/plant that 'burned' when one was pricked by it. It is not used anywhere else in the Bible.


4

I'm going to address your direct question of how a text could be accepted as Pauline if Paul didn't write it. I won't go into the specifics of the arguments for or against Pauline authorship of the Pastorals. Types of Authorship In ancient times the concept of authorship was different from what it is today. There were at least five different types of ...


4

The OP asks specifically about extra-biblical resources available for exploring the meaning of rare words in the Bible. The lexical situation is very different when considering Classical Hebrew and Koine Greek, so I will consider those separately. First, a few general remarks about Biblical word studies: The best resource for English readers to understand ...


3

The original question contained a link to the interesting article by Rendsburg 1988: http://jewishstudies.rutgers.edu/docman/rendsburg/64-the-mock-of-baal-in-1-kings-18-27/file Has anyone else looked at it? The author argues that śiăḥ and śiḡ are a hendiadys. śiḡ or siḡ is well-known in the meaning “go away, step aside”, and can thus reasonably be ...


3

It's worth reading Gesenius's interpretation of מֶשֶׁק here. He identifies מֶשֶׁק (mesheq) with מֶשֶׁךְ (meshek - defined here) in its meaning of "possession." He views the unusual form of מֶשֶׁק, with a koph instead of a caph for the last letter, as a pun ("paronomasia") to go with with דַּמֶּשֶׂק (Dammeseq), "Damascus." Gesenius rejects the interpretation ...


3

Hermeneutics is not only about the deductive approach to interpreting Scripture (for example, grammar and syntax) but also the inductive approach, which is to infer the generalization from several pieces of information -- sort of connecting the dots. In other words, hermeneutics is both an art (subjective) and science (objective). The concept of the Sabbath ...


3

ותצחק שרה and laughing Sarah בקרבה within herself לאמר to say אחרי בלתי after I am without/lack היתה לי her-exist/become of me עדנה her-make-pleasure ואדני זקן and my lord-husband is bearded/old You should simply read the passage at its face value. Sarah laughing within herself to say, after I lack/lose my liveliness, have pleasure and my ...


3

This seems to be one where the translations, lexicons, and commentaries are in broad agreement: it's meant temporally. The syntax of the verse εἰς τὸ εἶναι ἡμᾶς εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης αὐτοῦ τοὺς προηλπικότας ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ. so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory. (ESV) In this rendering, τοὺς προηλπικότας ...


1

A lexicon is the tool of choice for identifying the meaning of words and their semantic domains. These tools assume knowledge of the language as words have different meanings depending on their morphology, syntax, and context. A Note on Most Freely Available Public Domain Greek-English Lexica "...in 1895, Adolf Deissmann published his Bibelstudien - an ...


1

Who is ἀναίδεια attributed to? Luke 11:8 λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ καὶ οὐ δώσει αὐτῷ ἀναστὰς διὰ τὸ εἶναι φίλον αὐτοῦ, διά γε τὴν ἀναίδειαν αὐτοῦ ἐγερθεὶς δώσει αὐτῷ ὅσων χρῄζει. Grammatically it is possible to read the second "αὐτοῦ" (his) as referring to either the slumbering man or his nocturnal supplicant. Neither reading will materially change the teaching of the ...


1

Question Restatement In Hebrews 4:9, what does the word "σαββατισμὸς, sabbatismos" mean, and what is the methodology to interpret / translate this word? Hebrews 4:9, NASB- So there remains a "Sabbath rest, (σαββατισμὸς)" for the people of God. Issues: Sabbath, is not a Greek expression, but rather a Hebrew one. The word "rest" is not actually in the ...


1

The original Hebrew text reads בקרת תהיה, “there shall be biqoreth”. This last word is variously translated as “investigation” or “punishment”, but it seems only the KJV applies this specifically to the woman. The Hebrew text doesn’t support this at all, so it’s unclear why the KJV translates the text this way. Perhaps this was a mistake; perhaps they had a ...



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