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The verb σῴζεσθε appears in the present passive indicative (second person plural form). So the idea is present tense. That is, Wu and Tan (2010) structure the sentence as follows; here the word σῴζεσθε modifies the words "the gospel" found in the previous verse. Please click to enlarge. Thus the following translation would be accurate. 1 Cor 15:2 ...


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Aspect The verb is a "present indicative", which, unfortunately, means the "aspect" could be taken either way grammatically. The "present indicative" is shared by both: punctiliar (instantaneous) / undefined (generic) actions in the "present time" (e.g. "I want a cookie"), and continuous actions in the "present time" (e.g. I am writing this answer") ...


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Several Bible software tools point to the modification of ἐντειλάμενος. In order to view each, please click on the respective references, below. REFERENCES: Porter, S. E., O’Donnell, M. B., Reed, J. T., & Tan, R., OpenText.org. (2006). The OpenText.org Syntactically Analyzed Greek New Testament: Clause Analysis; OpenText.org Clause Analysis. Logos ...


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Thank you all for your insight full comments. I would say that I favor the conclusion of Thayer's Greek Lexicon (which I found here: http://biblehub.com/greek/2644.htm ) Specifically that "but the passive is used also where only one ceases to be angry with another and receives him into favor; thus καταλλαγεις, received by Cyrus into favor, Xenophon, an. 1, ...


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The question: What tools are the necessary tools to determine what NT Greek words correspond to the Hebrew words that were translated into the LXX? My first answer would be a working knowledge of classical Hebrew and koine Greek. I suspect this is not what OP has in mind, but it is the "right" answer. So, trying again: What tools are the necessary ...


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Some Greek New Testament lexicons will also provide the equivalent Hebrew words (of the Old Testament) in the lexical entry. For example, in John 1:1, it is written, Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος I would like to know which Hebrew words are translated into the Greek Septuagint by the Greek word ἀρχή. Here is the ...


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There are 28 instances of the Aorist Passive Imperative (Second Person Plural) in the Greek New Testament (NA28), which are found in 27 verses. Please click on the thumbnail, below, to view all of these instances in the New Testament. The Aorist Passive Imperative (Second Person Plural) is therefore not uncommon. Some verbs, such as δεήθητε (Matt 9:38), ...


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Aorist In non-indicative moods (like the imperative) the "tense" indicates aspect and not time. So the aorist here indicates either a puntiliar (instantaneous) or undefined (generic) kind of action. Passive The active voice is used in Greek when the subject is performing the action (e.g. "he is eating"), while the passive is used to indicate an action ...


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Walking through the first part of Hebrews 1:1 begins with "God spoke to our fathers by the prophets," 1:2 declares now God "has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed the heir of all things," 1:3-4 makes both a statement of Christ's nature and work that equates the Son with God, but also as the most exalted of creation as man (v.4) 1:5-14 then ...


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Well that is the trouble with translations. Words can mean more than one thing. However in this case I believe the double meaning is not intentional. It would be a good verse to revise in a future version to eliminate the possible misunderstanding. Going to the greek interlinear we get prassein ta idia G4238 G3588 G2938 ...


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Well, there is some ambiguity around the meaning of the phrase τοὺς πτωχοὺς τῶν ἁγίων, although the correct choice appears to be mostly a settled issue among modern translations and commentaries. To define our terms: τοὺς πτωχοὺς = the poor = head noun τῶν ἁγίων = the saints = genitive (in the genitive case as a reflection of its relationship with τοὺς ...


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There does seem to have been a developing sense of divisions of the Hebrew scriptures in the Second Temple period, with 'the Law' and 'the Prophets' mostly settled, but further divisions were still up in the air. The prologue of Sirach, written around 130 BC, mentions the Law, the Prophets, and 'the rest of the books of our fathers': Many great ...


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First of all, it is understandable that anyone writing a New Testament book in Greek Koine would be influenced by the style of the Septuagint, since the LXX was the scriptural source used for reference and frequently cited or alluded to in the NT. That alone ought to give an occasional LXX flavour to the New Testament. The question seems to be whether the NT ...


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Short Answer: The word is best translated "one-of-a-kind" or simply "unique". ("Only" would also work, though it could be misunderstood more easily.) The old translation "only-begotten" was based on an honest mistake in parsing the Greek word. Background on "only-begotten" The Greek word in question is μονογενη. It is pretty clearly a compound word ...


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Short Answer: Comprehend, probably. A note on method: All words have a semantic range, and only context can tell us how a given word was intended to be understood. While some have asserted that in such instances John intended two (or more) meanings, we can be sure that this was not the case, as that is not how language works (except in the rare cases of ...


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Just looking at the multiple greek lexicons at Perseus http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/morph?l=kli%5Eqei%2Fs&la=greek&can=kli%5Eqei%2Fs0&prior=kli/nw#lexicon The Middle Liddel gives (and the LSJ and Autenrieth concur, only the Slater gives a more limited definition) to make to bend, slope, or slant, to incline or turn as such bow is within ...


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Pedagogues had a reputation for harshness, which was not unwarranted, as the cane, the whip, and the rod were basic accoutrements of the pedagogue's art. Severity was not the universal practice, however. Many pedagogues fulfilled their role with kindness and endeared themselves to their charges in a life-long bond. Nevertheless, whether bad or good, the ...



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