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3

This seems to be one where the translations, lexicons, and commentaries are in broad agreement: it's meant temporally. The syntax of the verse εἰς τὸ εἶναι ἡμᾶς εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης αὐτοῦ τοὺς προηλπικότας ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ. so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory. (ESV) In this rendering, τοὺς προηλπικότας ...


3

The very short answer is: "no". For the Greek Septuagint see NETS; for the Aramaic Targumim see the Aramaic Bible series; for the Hebrew Masoretic Text, any reliable public translation will do. These textual traditions are sufficiently distinct that it would not make sense to have an amalgamated edition (which is what I take it is meant by "all combined ...


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If I understand correctly, the question is: Question Restatement, Part 1: Acts 1:2 incorporates the phrase, "ιὰ πνεύματος ἁγίου", (through the Holy Spirit). Is it "Through the Holy Spirit", the apostles were instructed, (ἐντειλάμενος), or "Through the Holy Spirit", they were chosen, (ἐξελέξατο)? Question Restatement, Part 2: What is the linguistic ...


1

Question: What does the phrase "I in the Father and the Father in me" mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10? It is unnecessary, and even imprudent, for us to invent an explanation--when Jesus explains it--in detail, even using metaphors. Additionally, John goes on to expound on this, in 1 John 2. Answer: Jesus' multiple explanations, as well as ...


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short comment: In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word was God. Jesus was not created but thro' Him all thing came, He was the word and speaking that Word light of Christ was revealed. For from him and through him and to him are all things. To him be the glory forever. Amen.Romans 11:36 Thro' Him all things came to existence, ...


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Question Restatement: In the general context of the leadership roles of Men and Women, (in 1 Tim. 2), is there significance in the Greek word choice underling "Authority": "αὐθεντεῖν" rather than "ἐξουσία", (from Romans 13:1)? NOTE: This question is not in the context of marriage, or husbands and wives, but rather in the context of general leadership ...


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Question Restatement: Does John 1:1 refer to Jesus, the Word, as "The Most High", or simply god, in form, being the Son of God? Significance of the Question: Whether it is a doctrinal condition for salvation that one must believe that "Jesus is the Most High, the Father", is WAY out of the scope of--John 1, and never even hinted at as a "Pillar Tenet of ...


1

A subject (A) in the nominative case plus οὐ δύναται plus infinitive (B) and ἀδύνατον plus a noun (A) in the accusative case plus an infinitive (B) are both correct classical Greek ways of saying "A cannot do B". There is no difference in meaning. See, for example, Smyth §2000 - §2002.


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According to Strong (#3904) the word denotes "preparation, equipment." The context makes specific use of day: καὶ ἡμέρα ἦν Παρασκευῆ - literally "and day it was of preparation." The word Παρασκευῆ means preparation. Luke continues: καὶ σάββατον ἐπέφωσκεν "and the Sabbath was coming on." If Παρασκευῆ was limited to preparation only for the weekly Sabbath, ...


0

Please correct me if I am wrong, but is the Lord simply asking us not to make judgement as opposed to judge. As we have seen, there is an instance when Jesus commended the person for judging correctly. So to not judge would not be biblical, would it? Every time we assess a situation - example we say "I think he did steal or he we may say I think he did not" ...


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John MacArthur is basing his statement on the Greek Text of the NASB, whereas the Greek text of the King James Version contains the definite article with the Greek noun Theos - τῶ θεῷ. Either way, the absence or presence of the article doesn't matter. Paul was referring to God and not a god. I suppose John MacArthur feels his commentary in this passage ...


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Archibald Thomas Robertson in his Word Pictures of the New Testament has a nice explanation, that the gates of Hades will not be able to overcome or imprison the church i.e. "O death, where is thy sting? O grave, where is thy victory?" (1 Corinthians 15:55, KJV) because Christ led captivity captive (Ephesians 4:8) when he descended into Hades then rose ...


3

RE: (Aramaic Bible in Plain English) "gates of Sheol will not withstand it". There isn’t much support for the rendering you found in the greek text. It may be a viable rendering of a syriac version. Not sure which syriac version is being translated. NRSV Matt. 16:18 And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates ...


1

I realize this is an older thread. But, I would like to point out that Paul, who was an Hebrew of the Hebrews (Phil. 3:5) having been raised in Judaism and zealous of the law, included himself among those who were in "bondage to the elements of the world" Ga:4:3: Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world: And by ...


5

I will limit my comments to the question is the “inclusive” reading of οἱ δὲ grammatically impossible rather than merely improbable which is the majority view: Stephanie Black objects to Grayston's approach, observing that οἱ δὲ signals discontinuity and would be highly unlikely if there were continuity of subject with the previous sentence. (Stephanie ...



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