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1

Lexicons frequently define παις in three senses: in relation to descent (son, daughter), age (young, e.g. infant, boy, girl), or ‘condition’ (slave, servant). The text of Matthew 8:5-13 does not clarify whether the ill person in the centurion’s household is a son or servant, but since Roman military were not allowed to marry, ‘servant’ seems likely. ...


3

It is correct that the centurion refers to the sick child as παις in Mt 8:6. However, you might note that in the parallel version of the same story in Luke 7:1-10 he is called δουλος. This suggests that at least in this pericope παις means δουλος. In any case, it answers your questions as to why the translators have understood it in this way.


2

The Greek word κύριος means "Master-Lord-Ruler". It has no connection to "Yahveh", which in Greek is translated (excluding pronouns and articles) using forms of the verb "εἰμὶ" (to be) . Also, the audience of the epistle has a Greek cultural background, where the word "κύριος" (lord) is not used in place of the word "θεός" (god). However, Paul, being a ...


7

Manuscript support Both readings have early manuscript support The reading μυστήριον (mystery) finds early support in P46vid? א* A C 88 436 itr, 61 syrp copbo Hippolytus Ambrosiaster Ephraem Ambrose Pelagius Augustine Antiochus.1 UBS3 cites P46vid? in support of μυστήριον however the question mark follows "vid" because the editors were not sure of the ...


0

The subject can be found in verses 4 and 5 of Matt. 24. The first one taken is taken into deception and worship the antichrist. The one left is left waiting for the true Christ to return. The anti christ comes first PEACEFULLY AND PROSPEROUSLY. He comes claiming to be christ, the whole world will whore after Him thinking he's here to "Rapture" them away... ...


0

The first instance, being in the perfect tense, indicates a completed past action with present results. The second instance, being in the imperfect, indicates a progressive or continuous past action. If the author of Hebrews was writing a translation of the KJV, then he should have used the same tense, possibly the aorist, but that's not the situation. ...


0

It is telling that Liddell and Scott list only LXX and NT references for "δόξα" as "of external appearance: glory". Everywhere else, it is used to discuss the public's expectations and approval of someone's actions based on those expectations. Those who do what others expect of them (δόγμα), meaning what is proper (δίκαιος), maintain their reputation (δόξα). ...


3

There do not appear to be any text-critical concerns with the Greek text, only variation in the English translation of the word τεκμήριον (tekmērion, Strong’s G5039). The word is well-attested in literature but appears in only four scripture verses (depending on your tradition): Acts 1:3; Wisdom of Solomon 5:11 and 19:13; and 3 Maccabees 3:24. Thayer’s ...


8

This interesting question has two dimensions: (1) the meaning of παρέστησεν ἑαυτὸν ... ἐν πολλοῖς τεκμηρίοις [parestēsen heauton ... en pollois tekmēriois = "he presented himself ... by many tekmēriois"]; and (2) its history of translation in English versions. The Meaning of πολλοῖς τεκμηρίοις The key term here is τεκμήριον which, as noted in an earlier ...


3

Acts 1:3 οἷς καὶ παρέστησεν ἑαυτὸν ζῶντα μετὰ τὸ παθεῖν αὐτὸν ἐν πολλοῖς τεκμηρίοις, δι᾽ ἡμερῶν τεσσεράκοντα ὀπτανόμενος αὐτοῖς καὶ λέγων τὰ περὶ τῆς βασιλείας τοῦ θεοῦ· τεκμηρίοις The lexicons seem to be in general agreement that the translation into English of 'proofs' requires an intensifier to bring it into line with the true sense of the Greek term. ...


-3

The Greek text for Acts 1:3 has pollois tekmhriois, translated as "many tokens", without the intensifier. The Latin Vulgate also lacks the intensifier. The Catholic, New American Bible follows the Vulgate in not having an intensifier: Acts 1:3: He presented himself alive to them by many proofs after he had suffered, appearing to them during forty days ...


1

The word itself - προγνώσει - can mean either "foreknew" (as in having known about it beforehand but not necessarily ordaining of it), or "forethought" (has in having a specific "pre-arrangement"). Interpretations of the word and thereby the meaning of this passage have varied from the opinion of Berkhof, as you've quoted, to that of Archer, who remarks on ...


1

It is difficult to believe that Jerome perceived any theological distinction between “communication” of Christ’s blood and “participation” of the Lord’s body. I can only suggest that he is using the rhetorical figure known as “interpretatio”, where a statement is repeated with substitution of one synonym by another, for the sake of stylistic variety. There ...


2

Both references imply a vigorous washing. Mark 7:3 has πυγμή (fist) which suggests a vigorous washing hand of fist; the same word is used for 'boxing'. Luke 11:38 uses βαπτίζω, which has a history of referring to not just washing, but serious, vigorous dipping, used for drowning, or drunkenness (like in English we might say 'sodden' for someone who is ...


-1

With regard to the position of the word "blessed," it should be noted that Psalm 67:19-20 places eulogetos after kyrios ho theos ("the Lord God") in the Greek Septuagint, the same word order as here


0

1) There is no instance in which Paul unambiguously calls Jesus "God" in any of his letters, so the translation in the NIV is contrary to Pauline usage. Many scholars cite an alleged parallel at Titus 2:13 to justify the translation "Christ, who is God over all" in Romans 9:5. However, Titus 2:13 only calls Jesus "THE GLORY OF our great God and Savior" or ...


2

Textus Receptus (Estienne, 1550): καὶ ἐγένετο ἄφνω ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ ἦχος ὥσπερ φερομένης πνοῆς βιαίας καὶ ἐπλήρωσεν ὅλον τὸν οἶκον οὗ ἦσαν καθήμενοι Nestle-Aland 28th edition: καὶ ἐγένετο ἄφνω ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ ἦχος ὥσπερ φερομένης πνοῆς βιαίας καὶ ἐπλήρωσεν ὅλον τὸν οἶκον οὗ ἦσαν καθήμενοι The Greek phrase translated into English as "the house" is ...



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