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To respond to John Unsworth's question of the dead being judged at Christ's return I present the following; Rev 20:4 "And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshiped the beast, neither his image, neither ...


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I think that you might be right in supposing that Paul is approximately quoting what appears in the Septuagint: Habakkuk 2:4 (LXX) ἐὰν ὑποστείληται, οὐκ εὐδοκεῖ ἡ ψυχή μου ἐν αὐτῷ· ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεώς μου ζήσεται. Leviticus 18:5 (LXX) καὶ φυλάξεσθε πάντα τὰ προστάγματά μου καὶ πάντα τὰ κρίματά μου, καὶ ποιήσετε αὐτά· ἃ ποιήσας ...


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I believe the phrase does in fact mean the Holy Spirit. A large number of manuscripts actually use the word ἁγίου in place of αἰωνίου, including the Sinaiticus and Bezae Codices, as well as the source text used by John Chrysostom in his Homilies on Hebrews. Ambrose of Milan (4th c.) cited this verse in Book I of On the Holy Spirit: So as wisdom which ...


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BDAG has the following for the word in question from Galatians 5:20: φαρμακεία, ας, ἡ (also-κία; X., Pla. et al.; Vett. Val., pap, LXX; En, AscIs; Philo, Spec. Leg. 3, 94; 98; Ar. 13, 7; Tat. 18, 1) sorcery, magic (φάρμακον; Polyb. 38, 16, 7; Ex 7:11, 22; 8:14; Is 47:9, 12; Wsd 12:4; 18:13; En 7:1; SibOr 5, 165) Rv 18:23. Pl. magic arts 9:21 (v.l. ...


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Έπιστάτης appears in the NT only in Luke (5:5; 8:24, 45; 9:33, 49; 17:13). In case except the last, the word appears on the lips of a disciple. Marshall, in this NIGTC calls the make of the last reference a near disciple (203). Marshall agrees with Oepke’s TDNT article (II, 622f.) that the word is a translation of the Palestinian Aramaic, רַבִּי. Marshall ...


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As noted the meaning of the phrase σαββάτῳ διαπορεύεσθαι may be indirectly related to Luke’s description of the resurrection and if so raises a question of Luke's Passover narrative: Chrysostom's Homily indicates two consecutive Sabbath days - then one would expect the same construction in the Byzantine version of Luke's Passion narrative - if-and only-...


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The Greek word is attempting to capture the Hebrew concept of "nefesh". The life force which animates the Body. The Soul is not the Spirit. The Spirt is what God gives.. Each language's word choice gets further from the orginal. By the time we get to English we are many times twice removed.


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There is no reason whatsoever that x would not be used to refer to one's kin as that is in the semantic domain of the word, used properly: ...④ as subst., person or thing associated with an entity ⓐ associates, relations οἱ ἴδιοι (comrades in battle: Polyaenus, Exc. 14, 20; SIG 709, 19; 22; 2 Macc 12:22; Jos., Bell. 1, 42, Ant. 12, 405; compatriots:...


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First of all, 'Mark' should be recognised as a consummate author, regardless of language. Harold Bloom writes (Jesus and Yahweh: the Names Divine, page 65), “Whoever composed Mark is a genius still too original for us to absorb.” John Carroll says in The Existential Jesus, page 17 that Mark was a virtuoso storyteller. On pages 252-253, Carroll says that the ...


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You are right in saying both Hebrew and Greek words just mean "messenger". The English word "angel" is transliterated from αγγελος. All passages containing "messenger" make most sense when looking see what the actual "message" is that is being brought by the "messenger". The message is more important that the one who brings it. Related Strongs Numbers ...


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I would render 2 Timothy 2:25-26 as: 25 In humility, correcting those who oppose -- lest at some time God should give them a change of heart regarding the knowledge of the truth -- 26 that they might return to clarity of mind from the entrapment of the Devil, having been taken alive by him into his will. Details for verse 26: 2 Timothy 3:8-9, I ...


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The semantic domain (the several usages) of πρός is given in BDAG. Notice the notes in the first paragraph: "expressing direction ‘on the side of’, ‘in the direction of’: w. gen. ‘from’, dat. ‘at’, or acc. (the most freq. usage in our lit.) ‘to’ (s. the lit. s.v. ἀνά. beg.) (Hom.+)." What these notes are saying is that depending on the case of ...


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I believe the author of John is saying... Ἐν(in) ἀρχῇ (first) [no definite article just like b'reshit in Genesis 1:1] ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason), καὶ (and) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) ἦν (was) πρὸς (moving towards) τὸ (the) θεόν (God), καὶ (and) θεὸς (divine) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) οὗτος (it) ἦν (was) ἐν (in) ἀρχῇ (first) πρὸς (moving ...


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"To the Hebrews" spills a lot of ink to compare and contrast the death of Jesus to the rituals of Yom Kippur as spelled out in Leviticus 16. The purification he refers to consisted of two sacrifices; the bull which was offered to express the remorse of the priest for his sins and to appeal to God for forgiveness for himself and his household, and the first ...


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Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by (ἐν) the law, for “The righteous shall live by (ἐκ) faith.” (Galatians 3:11 ESV) "living ἐν something [the Law]" "living ἐκ something [faith]" When an author chooses different words, the presumption should be they intend a different meaning. Strong’s states: ἐν [the Law]: in, on, ...


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I have now come across Acts 13:34, which I think gives an answer to my question. The writer of Acts quotes Psalm 16:10 again in 13:35 and just before this writes this in verse 34: ὅτι δὲ ἀνέστησεν αὐτὸν ἐκ νεκρῶν μηκέτι μέλλοντα ὑποστρέφειν εἰς διαφθοράν... as to raising him from the dead, no more to return to corruption,... If his body had ...


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I would say death, or decay, begins after the last breath. I think if we look at what exactly decomposition is in the human body and what scripture/history tells us, I think we can deduce that his body did not decay. Jesus died but did not experience decomposition. Because He was brutally murdered and died yet did not decay but rose again, He "destroyed ...


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Luke 2:7 states that Jesus was the firstborn of Mary. Anywhere else he is the only begotten son of the Father. So it is an evidence that Mary had other sons and daughters after the birth of Jesus. I read so many references in other answers and this was not quoted. This verse alone explains everything better than any expert or book would do. That's the power ...


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1.) The author of 2 Thessalonians is providing solace to a church under persecution. There's no indication that this persecution is anything but physical. 2.) Nothing in the syntax suggests a contrast between angels and demons. The contrast is between believers and non-believers. v.9 suggests that these non-believers have not yet been shut out from God's ...


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The OP presents two questions, one concerns the "true God" the other concerns the practice of some Christians who worship Jesus. This is an answer to the question: Does this passage indicate that anyone who worships Jesus Christ as "the true God" is worshiping a idol? The simple answer is no. First the final verse of the letter exhortation is addressed to ...


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The meaning of a word for a given author should be based first on how the author uses the word and how that usage is employed within their work. This author is purposeful to begin their work by using the same phrase 3 times: In the beginning was the Word (ὁ λόγος), and the Word (ὁ λόγος) was with God, and the Word (ὁ λόγος) was God. (John 1:1 NKJV) ...


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Katachthonios in Ancient Greek Literature Literally speaking, καταχθόνιος just means 'under the earth', from the prefix κατά (down) and χθόνιος ([under] earth). But it seems to have been coined with a specific referent:1 Persephone, goddess of the underworld, is daughter of Demeter, goddess of corn, and Zeus Chthonios, the farmer's friend, can scarcely ...


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I believe the author of John is saying... Ἐν(in) ἀρχῇ (first) [no definite article just like b'reshit in Genesis 1:1] ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason), καὶ (and) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) ἦν (was) πρὸς (moving towards) τὸ (the) θεόν (God), καὶ (and) θεὸς (divine) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (reason) οὗτος (it) ἦν (was) ἐν (in) ἀρχῇ (first) πρὸς (moving ...


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οἴδαμεν (we know) δὲ (moreover) ὅτι (that) ὁ (the) υἱὸς (son) τοῦ (of the) θεοῦ (God) ἥκει (is come), καὶ (and) δέδωκεν (has given) ἡμῖν (us) διάνοιαν (understanding) ἵνα (so that) γινώσκομεν (we might know) τὸν (the) ἀληθινόν (true)· καί (and) ἐσμεν (we are) ἐν (with) τῷ (the) ἀληθινῷ (true), ἐν (with) τῷ (the) υἱῷ (son) αὐτοῦ (of him) Ἰησοῦ (...


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In Rom. 12:10, the Greek text states, τῇ φιλαδελφίᾳ εἰς ἀλλήλους φιλόστοργοι τῇ τιμῇ ἀλλήλους προηγούμενοι TR, 1550 There are essentially two clauses in Rom. 12:10: τῇ φιλαδελφίᾳ εἰς ἀλλήλους φιλόστοργοι τῇ τιμῇ ἀλλήλους προηγούμενοι According to Tischendorf, there are no relevant textual variants.1 In the second clause, we may supply the ...


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If we accept that the apostle Paul is referring to a mirror in 1 Cor 13:12, then what is being reflected? The apostle Paul (as well as other Christians) behold the mirror and see the glory of the Lord. Exegesis The Greek text of 1 Cor. 13:12 states, ΙΒʹ βλέπομεν γὰρ ἄρτι δι᾽ ἐσόπτρου ἐν αἰνίγματι τότε δὲ πρόσωπον πρὸς πρόσωπον ἄρτι γινώσκω ἐκ μέρους ...


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As I see it, there is indeed a distinction, and it can best be seen in the context of the Corinthian passage. In the previous verse (16:14), Pauls speaks about praying with "my spirit". (τὸ πνεῦμά μου προσεύχεται). This is clearly a reference not to the Holy Spirit, but rather to his "inner spirit". (Note the lower-case 's' in all modern translations; no ...


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In Acts 5:3, ψεύσασθαί means "to lie to", or as BDAG has it: to attempt to deceive by lying.... Ac 5:3 Note that this definition (2) is given separately simply to point out that it is a transitive verb that takes a direct (accusative) object. BDAG indicates this by the accusative pronoun τινὰ after the gloss. This contrasts with the usage of ψεύδομαι ...


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The NET Bible renders Romans 4:17 this way: (as it is written, “I have made you the father of many nations”). He is our father in the presence of God whom he believed – the God who makes the dead alive and summons the things that do not yet exist as though they already do. (Romans 4:17 NET) In a note on the verse a variant rendering is given: ...


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Why do contemporary scholars see an aspect of creation ex nihilo which the scholars of the King James did not? I believe the difference is based on the scientific knowledge at the time of translation. All translations involve some measure of interpretation on the part of a translator; different languages have different word meanings and nuances within a ...


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The Identification of the Reward The phrase "my reward is with me" («ὁ μισθός μου μετ᾽ ἐμοῦ») in Rev. 22:12 is an allusion to Isa. 40:10 and 62:11 wherein the Hebrew phrase שְׂכָרוֹ אִתּוֹ (sekharo itto) is translated into the LXX by the Greek phrase ὁ μισθὸς αὐτοῦ μετ᾽ αὐτοῦ, both of which translate into English as "his reward is with him."1 ...


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There are so many shades and colors of the word 'Judge' in the Bible as found over 700 times. There's 1 whole book of the Bible entitled "Judges" for it was written at a time when God raised up judges to lead His people. As Christians, God expects us to exercise judgment (Psa37:30) "The mouth of the righteous speaketh wisdom, and his tongue talketh of ...


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Lexical Analysis The verbs ἐκδημέω (ekdēmeō) and ἐνδημέω (endēmeō) are related to the noun δῆμος (dēmos), which has several meanings. LSJ notes,1 Other related words include the adjectives ἔκδημος (ekdēmos) and ἔνδημος (endēmos),2 as well as the nouns ἐκδημία (ekdēmia) and ἐνδημία (endēmia). The apostle Paul uses the verbs ἐκδημέω and ἐνδημέω ...


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If you assume that Jesus was not trying to trick his disciples, Matt 24:34 would be referring to events Jesus had previously mentioned that were to be fulfilled during the generation of his disciples. Those events included the end of the age: "And Jesus said to them, "Do you not see all these things? Assuredly, I say to you, not one stone shall be left ...


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"Perpetual virginity of Mary" is a contradiction to the Scriptures and as such should be rejected as sound doctrine. As stated in Matthew 1:25, there was intercourse between Joseph and Mary after she gave birth to Jesus. Moreover man's wisdom is foolishness in the sight of Jehovah God.


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Here's the question that I think is often missed. Many will say that the word order is not significant, but somewhere along the line, someone changed it. If it makes no difference, why make a change? I contend that the earlier reading (didaskein de gunaiki) could be interpreted "but to teach a woman . . ." I recognize that the accusative usually follows such ...


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I agree with Susan that this is not an interpretative issue, but I do not agree with the statement that it is merely an orthographic (spelling) issue. Rather it is a grammatical (morphological) issue. The suppletive strong aorist of the verb “to say” occurs both as εἶπον (1st pers. sing. and 3rd pers. pl.), and εἶπα (3rd pers. pl. εἶπαν). The former is more ...



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