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-1

Bible translators appear to be using it as an instrumental dative usage. http://www.ntgreek.org/learn_nt_greek/classify-dative.htm


1

Your analysis is correct, and the following grammar citation provides the grammatical explanation to answer your remaining questions. Please click to enlarge. Thus the "splitting" of the clause with attributives (inserted in the middle of the sentence) is normal in Greek. Such "splitting" would not be typical in English.


-1

The Hebrew Bible continues to use the tetragarmmaton or the name of God Yahweh. The most accurate English Bible should do the same -contrary to popular belief the Jews did use the name and pronounced it. Abraham, Moses, Jesus, they all knew and used the name of God. The New World Translation (NWT) is a fantastic modern English translation that puts the ...


12

Yes. The Hebrew שָׂטָן (śāṭān) is frequently transliterated into Greek as σαταν (satan) or σατανᾶς (satanas) — 36 times in the New Testament. The word διάβολος (diabolos) is also used (37 times). Diabolos is technically an adjective meaning “slanderous”, and it is occasionally used attributively, describing people (e.g. 1 Tim 3:11). However, like ...


2

While the Hebrew word השׁטן (saw-tawn') occurs 23 times in the OT, rendered as Satan a total of 17 times in the NET (Job 1:6-12; 2:1-7; Zech 3:1-2), with the other occurrences being translated variously as accuser, adversary, enemy, or to oppose, the Greek words σατάν and σατανᾶς occur 36 times in the NT, rendered every time as Satan in the NET.


8

The verse: πρὸς ὃ δύνασθε ἀναγινώσκοντες νοῆσαι τὴν σύνεσίν μου ἐν τῷ μυστηρίῳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ. When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ.(ESV) [With reference] to which, reading, you are able to know...(my overly literal rendition) Indeed, ὃ is the object of the preposition. That’s a relative pronoun, here declined ...


3

The articular infinitive is fun, isn’t it? This may be the most common construction in the Koine Greek that is has no real English equivalent. I’m a little confused about the way the sentence was parsed by your friends in the first paragraph, but I’ll explain it as I understand it and perhaps that will be helpful. The verse: καὶ νῦν δόξασόν με σύ, ...


3

There are at least three words that can designate "thing(s)" All word links below are to Liddell and Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon found online at http://www.perseus.tufts.edu. πᾶς (pas) Regarding Romans 8:28 specifically, this answer did well in noting how the neuter plural πάντα (panta) can have that idea "all things" reflected in translation. The ...


3

Regarding μισέω (miseó) Luke 14:26 uses the term μισέω in a context that reasonably shows its usage to be something other than "an adversarial emotion we recognize as 'hate.'" That is, it is used in a relative sense there, where Christ is comparing the fact that one ought to "detest" father, mother, wife, child, brother, sister, and their own self if any of ...


7

There are several Greek words occasionally translated "things", but in Romans 8:28, Greek is using the adjective πᾶς (all) substantivally, that is, as a noun. In English, adjectives require an explicit noun to accompany them. In Greek, the adjective itself can represent both the attributive and the substantive component of an idea. When a Greek adjective is ...


3

OP: Why is "Out" Injected? Many modern doctrines/translations inject "Out" into this passage, "Work Out", which implies "figuring out", implying a process of reasoning, ".. Figure out your own salvation ...” The word “out” is “injected” because: κατεργάζομαι does not simply mean “work”. The word “work” in English is usually intransitive.1 I ...


2

It is probably easier to address the questions in reverse order. Question 2) Why the significant difference between the NA27 and TR in Matthew, but not in Luke? Comfort and Metzger both explain that the reading τέκνων most likely originated as a scribal emendation intended to harmonize this text with the parallel in Luke 7:35. Metzger for example ...


0

You overlook the conjunction "BUT"! It is an interlocutor, not an ally. Could it be translated "One has faith, another has deeds"? This would flow, because the interlocutor would mistakenly be SEPARATING genuine faith from necessarily proceeding deeds. It's a short phrase that summarizes the false philosophy that deeds don't flow from thoughts. Its kind ...


0

Question Restatement In Hebrews 4:9, what does the word "σαββατισμὸς, sabbatismos" mean, and what is the methodology to interpret / translate this word? Hebrews 4:9, NASB- So there remains a "Sabbath rest, (σαββατισμὸς)" for the people of God. Issues: Sabbath, is not a Greek expression, but rather a Hebrew one. The word "rest" is not actually in the ...


0

That verse is made well known when read in the chapter. Rom 3: (NASB) 21 But now apart from the Law the righteousness of God has been manifested, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, 22 even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all those who believe; for there is no distinction; 23 for all have sinned and fall short ...


0

Answer: μονογενοῦς is used in Greek, as a term for the child with Birthright. It is a compound of two parts, μονο and γένος, literally, "One Offspring/Kindred/Race ... However, given the contexts, and extant literature, this term has a specific connotation--a sense of Birthright and Inheritance, not necessarily the "only child." γένος, Greek: ...


1

Paul was talking to a group of rather wayward Christians. He pointed out in the previous verse that he was glad they were grieved, not because they were grieved but because it was a godly grief. He then explains this type of grief leads to salvation. Sure some of the people in the church were saved but certainly not all of them. This is still speaking of ...


-1

"only begotten God" is supported by P66, P75, Alef, B, C, 33; all from Egypt; all poor, dead-end manuscripts. "only begotten Son" is supported by: A Cc Q 1 10 13 35 47 60 69 83 118 157 263 382 480 489 544 700 703 726 788 825 927 943 1005 1006 1023 1113 1190 1195 1200 1201 1217 1232 1242 1247 1251 1313 1319 1322 1341 1342 1355 1476 1478 1492 1582 2322vid ...


-2

This question should be considered along with its contextual component: "What is the 'Partial'" in 1 Cor. 13:10 referring to?" Question Restatement: "What is the Perfect AND the Partial" in 1 Cor 13:10 referring to? Proposed Answer: "The Perfect" is certainly referring to the "The Body" in 1 Cor. 13:10. This is juxtaposed with the actions of "The ...



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