New answers tagged

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The primary element to understand a letter is the audience a writer addresses. After an introduction in Chapter 1 in which the writer includes themselves and a general “you” (1:5), the main body of the letter starts in Chapter 2. Here the writer weaves a series of specific messages to specific groups within general instruction to all readers: My ...


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I copied the BDAG entry into Microsoft Word and searched for the word "mind" and found one hit, which I've highlighted below: ...ⓒ of feelings and emotions (Anacr., Fgm. 4 Diehl2 [15 Page]; Diod S 8, 32, 3; JosAs 6:1; SibOr 3, 558; Just., D. 2, 4; Mel., P. 18, 124 al.) περίλυπός ἐστιν ἡ ψυχή μου (cp. Ps 41:6, 12; 42:5) Mt 26:38; Mk 14:34. ἡ ψυχή ...


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No one who is born of God practices (ποιεῖ) sin … (3:9)1 9 Πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ, ὅτι σπέρμα αὐτοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ μένει, καὶ οὐ δύναται ἁμαρτάνειν, ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ γεγέννηται. (NA28) ποιεῖ is translated "practice." That is a meaning which leads to the understanding as Joseph shows: the person born of God does not engage in the ...


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There is one simple fact that is often not included in this discussion. That fact is that John did not have knowledge of the English words "overcome" and "comprehend." While he was writing, it's not as if he had one of those English words in mind. He wasn't thinking, "My intention here is 'overcome.' I sure hope my readers can figure it out." Is it ...


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While τεκνία has the sense of "kids"...: τεκνίον, ου, τό (Epict. 3, 22, 78; Anth. Pal.; PFlor 365, 15 [III A.D.]; POxy 1766, 14; TestJob, ApcMos) dim. of τέκνον; (little) child voc. pl. τεκνία; in our lit. only in the voc. pl., used by Jesus in familiar, loving address to his disciples, or by a Christian apostle or teacher to his spiritual ...


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I agree with The NonTheologian it may be reading too much into the text to infer that the author is writing to two distinct groups (τεκνία and παιδία) because Greek, like English, has synonyms. It would be strange if, in 2:12 he is addressing one group of "little children" and then addressing an entirely different group in the very next verse. The 'elder', ...


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As the author does not refer to himself as 'John' but as the presbyter, or 'elder' (2 John 1:1; 3 John 1:1), I will use that term to refer to him. The attribution to John only came later in the second century. I will look at the epistle as a whole and establish the context before returning to how and why the elder speaks of being born of God. The elder's ...


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The point is that one cannot be simultaneously justified and sinning: 1Jn_1:6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth: The author is calling Luther's paradigm of simul iustus et peccator a lie and those who embrace his teaching as "out of step" with "the truth": In describing the new birth ...


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The Apostle John refers to the behaviour of someone who has been born of God that results from that new birth, that is a consequence of that new birth, i.e. the behaviour consequent to the "new creation" (2 Cor 5:17 & Gal 6:15). To the extent that someone who has been born of God behaves as such, he does not practice sin. This is clear in Rom 8:5-14 and ...


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The point is that one cannot be simultaneously justified and sinning: 1Jn_1:6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth: The author is calling Luther's paradigm of simul iustus et peccator a lie and those who embrace his teaching as "out of step" with "the truth": In describing the new birth ...


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Although they were attributed to the apostle John later in the second century, the author of the three 'Johannine' epistles only refers to himself as the 'elder' or 'presbyter'. This epistle was not intended as an encyclical to the church as a whole, but was addressed by the elder to members of his community, to solve a problem that threatened its ...


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The answer surprises many, because scholarship of First John is what you might call a niche pursuit, so that the conclusions of critical scholars have not become well known. Because we often try to read 1 John in terms of modern faith concepts, it seems to be a confusing epistle with no easy answers to questions like this. W. Hall Harris III ('3. The Author’...


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Greek has five cases and their use is determined by grammatical rules. If you are addressing someone you use the vocative case, e.g. θεέ μου. After the preposition πρὸς, meaning "towards" you use the accusative case, e.g. πρὸς τὸν... θεόν μου. Aramaic does not have grammatical cases. So “my god” is the same regardless of whether you are calling him, or ...


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The word used in the Greek original is ἀσκός “skin, hide”, but usually a “skin made into a bag, wine skin”. http://perseus.uchicago.edu/cgi-bin/philologic/getobject.pl?c.9:2:100.LSJ The point of the Biblical parable is that a wine skin will dry out with age and become brittle. If you put fresh grape juice in an old wine skin the fermenting of the wine ...


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There is no logic behind the theory that true faith can't be forsaken, which seems to be the whole basis for the first answer. The child who is traumatized by a bad experience had to have genuine trust to begin with or they would not have jumped into the fathers arms. The act of jumping requires genuine faith. If the child claimed to trust the father but ...


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The context indicates why sacrifices (plural) are needed: And according to the law almost all things are purified (καθαρίζεται) with blood, and without shedding of blood there is no remission. Therefore it was necessary that the copies of the things in the heavens should be purified (καθαρίζεσθαι) with these, but the heavenly things themselves with ...


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εἶδος and μορφή are synonyms but like all synonyms the semantic range of each overlap but are not identical: εἶδος, ους, τό (Hom.+.—CRitter, Neue Unters. über Plato 1910, 228–320) ① the shape and structure of someth. as it appears to someone, form, outward appearance (X., Cyr. 1, 2, 1; Pla., Symp. 210b; Philostrat., Ep. 51; Gen 41:2–4; Ezk 1:26; ...


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The majority of Greek texts, as well as early Latin and Syriac translations, actually read "son of God" [υἱὸν τοῦ θεοῦ], not "son of man". The so-called "Critical Text" compiled by Nestle-Aland chose to insert a variant reading that occurs in 9 manuscripts. The Bible translation you are using probably relies on this particular text. The most authoritative ...


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I think it may be reading too much into the text, perhaps, to infer that John is writing to two distinct groups - τεκνία and παιδία. Greek, like English, has synonyms. It would be strange, for example, that in 2:12 he is addressing one group of "little children" and then addressing an entirely different group in the very next verse. I can't find any ...


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I believe you are asking if Revelation 3:12 is alluding to Exodus 6:6,7. According to http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/allusion, an allusion contains a reference to another passage: Full Definition of allusion 1 : an implied or indirect reference especially in literature; also : the use of such references 2 : the act of making an indirect ...


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The Greek text with the ESV runs like this: For we do not know what to pray for as we ought, τὸ γὰρ τί προσευξώμεθα καθὸ δεῖ οὐκ οἴδαμεν, but the Spirit himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words. ἀλλ᾿ αὐτὸ τὸ πνεῦμα ὑπερεντυγχάνει στεναγμοῖς ἀλαλήτοις· And he who searches hearts ὁ δὲ ἐραυνῶν τὰς καρδίας ...


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Is there any significant distinction between saying "I was fumbling for my car keys" and "my hand was fumbling for my car keys"? The key to understanding this package is to realize that both God and men are similarly constructed. Man is made in the image of God. God has a body and a "spirit" (aka "breath") and so he made man by fashioning clay into a statue ...


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I'm a bit confused about some of the answers and comments on here, so I'd like to try and answer the question and also address what has already been written. If I'm wrong, I would greatly appreciate if somebody would help clarify why. Thank you. καὶ (and)παρήγγειλεν (he instructed) ἡμῖν (us) κηρύξαι (to proclaim) τῷ (to the) λαῷ (people) καὶ (and) ...


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The idols are any thing which is worshiped instead of God. It can even be something which isn't worshiped but takes over your life and you are obsessed with. Little children are God's children (followers) because if God is the father then we are the children of him.


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Nominative participles may take accusative objects, such as John 8:18: ὁ πέμψας με πατήρ the father who sends me But κριτής in Acts 10:42 is nominative (accusative would be κριτήν), so if it is the "argument to ὁρίζω" it is at least in the same case, since this form of ὁρίζω is passive. This is common, particularly with λέγω (to say/name). For ...


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Matthew 19:5 - We need to pick up at v. 4: ...ὁ κτίσας ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν αὐτοὺς 5 καὶ εἶπεν·... Here, the verbs (in bold) both have the same antecedent: epoiēsen and eipen both have as their subject ho ktisas. So it runs "the one who created ... made ... and said ...". Matthew 19:8 - the clue to handling ap' archēs again comes in v. 4: v. 4: ...


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I believe the answer to your question is no, the writers of the New Testament did not rely on the Hebrew text. The recently published Eastern Orthodox Bible New Testament footnotes every single Old Testament quote and assesses whether the quote agrees with the Greek Septuagint rather than the Masoretic Text, which is supposedly a faithful representation of ...


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I think he is saying the whole passage he has just explained is all going to happen in 1 generation including his return. Like what he is saying won't be drawn out a long time. Short period of time . Like-All this I have explained will happen in this one generation that it's happening to and not over multiple generations. This generation won't pass away ...


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What Jesus means by this is that when we feel that someone is ignorant and commits an act of sin, it is the wrong approach to just call them "stupid" or "a fool" and walk away. In that sense, we would be commiting two haneous acts of sin. The first is that we are unwilling to show Love towards and forgive our brother/sister. The second is that we are ...


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I think we must be careful that when a word that has some special significance in English is used to translate a Greek word, it somehow imputes its special meaning to the Greek word it is being used to translate. (I'm sure there is a technical term for this - equivocation? - but I don't know what it is.) You are suggesting, I think, that if the definite ...


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I think that you might be right in supposing that Paul is approximately quoting what appears in the Septuagint: Habakkuk 2:4 (LXX) ἐὰν ὑποστείληται, οὐκ εὐδοκεῖ ἡ ψυχή μου ἐν αὐτῷ· ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεώς μου ζήσεται. Leviticus 18:5 (LXX) καὶ φυλάξεσθε πάντα τὰ προστάγματά μου καὶ πάντα τὰ κρίματά μου, καὶ ποιήσετε αὐτά· ἃ ποιήσας ...


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I believe the phrase does in fact mean the Holy Spirit. A large number of manuscripts actually use the word ἁγίου in place of αἰωνίου, including the Sinaiticus and Bezae Codices, as well as the source text used by John Chrysostom in his Homilies on Hebrews. Ambrose of Milan (4th c.) cited this verse in Book I of On the Holy Spirit: So as wisdom which ...


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BDAG has the following for the word in question from Galatians 5:20: φαρμακεία, ας, ἡ (also-κία; X., Pla. et al.; Vett. Val., pap, LXX; En, AscIs; Philo, Spec. Leg. 3, 94; 98; Ar. 13, 7; Tat. 18, 1) sorcery, magic (φάρμακον; Polyb. 38, 16, 7; Ex 7:11, 22; 8:14; Is 47:9, 12; Wsd 12:4; 18:13; En 7:1; SibOr 5, 165) Rv 18:23. Pl. magic arts 9:21 (v.l. ...



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