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1

I agree with Susan that this is not an interpretative issue, but I do not agree with the statement that it is merely an orthographic (spelling) issue. Rather it is a grammatical (morphological) issue. The suppletive strong aorist of the verb “to say” occurs both as εἶπον (1st pers. sing. and 3rd pers. pl.), and εἶπα (3rd pers. pl. εἶπαν). The former is more ...


2

Textus Receptus aligns with commentaries of the Church Fathers. For example, the use of ὡσεὶ in this passage (instead of ὡς) suggests that the Holy Spirit was not a dove, but appeared AS IF a dove. That is, the Greek adverb ὡσεὶ suggest the more analogous rather than literal comparison. Several Church Fathers make this distinction. For example, St. Ambrose ...


0

I think that the idea of an implied "was" makes more sense contextually than "is" does because the "offering" being discussed is Jesus' death functioning as the "death introduced" to ratify the new covenant with the Jews, which would have occurred prior to the writing of the essay. In my view, though, even if an implied "is" linguistically preferred it still ...


-2

In each of the 3 passages where "lord of the sabbath" is mentioned it is not YHVH nor Jesus that is named but rather "the son of man". This term means "the human" and alludes to Daniel's vision of a human being being invested with authority from YHVH: Dan 7:13 "I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of heaven there came one like a son ...


0

In the scriptures many faculties are attributed to the breath including making alive (animation), self-awareness, God-awareness and the power of speech: Act_2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit [breath] and began to speak in other tongues [foreign] as the Spirit [breath] gave them utterance. 1Co_12:8 For to one is given through ...


1

KJV So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the Word "Rhema" of God. Versus: So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ. James made note that faith in God was not something special: James 2:19You believe that there is one God. Good! Even the demons believe that—and shudder. Salvation comes through Jesus Christ. Those that ...


1

John 10:30 (ESV) I and the Father are one. The sentence itself is vague. It doesn't tell us what kind of union they have. John 10:30 (Westcott and Hort 1881) ἐγὼ καὶ ὁ πατὴρ ἕν ἐσμεν. 1 Corinthians 3:8a (Westcott and Hort 1881) ὁ φυτεύων δὲ καὶ ὁ ποτίζων ἕν εἰσιν 1 Corinthians 3:8 has a similar phrase which shows us that ...


1

In ancient Hebrew thought man is composed of two physical elements: dirt breath The making of man into these two elements is graphically described by Moses: Gen 2:7 then the LORD God formed the man of dust from the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living creature. In other words, YHVH scooped up ...


3

No, they are not synonymous. In way of background, we note that the Hebrew rûaḥ is commonly rendered by the Greek pneuma, both commonly rendered by the English spirit. The OP is wondering why, in Isaiah 40:13, the translator has chosen the Greek nous ("mind") rather than the more common pneuma ("spirit"). Despite the default translations rûaḥ ↔ ...


2

Attempted Stoning Indicates More than a Claim to Unity of Purpose or Will In John 10:30, what did the Lord Jesus Christ mean when he said, "I and my Father are one"? Perhaps the Lord Jesus Christ meant "I and my Father are one in purpose" or "I and my Father are one in will," but then, how does one explain the Jews' reaction after they heard his ...


2

Functional oneness Virtually all modern commentators on John 10:30 take the position that the oneness immediately in view here is a functional oneness, or oneness of will, purpose, and action. D.A. Carson, The Gospel according to John: Verses 28–29 affirm that both the Father and the Son are engaged in the perfect preservation of Jesus’ sheep. Small ...


1

Aramaic is a Semitic language ala Hebrew and Arabic. In fact it could be considered a dialect of Hebrew though it is different enough to be considered its own language, much like the Romantic languages that branched off of Latin: http://jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/1707-aramaic-language-among-the-jews "Abba" means "my father" which was more useful for ...


0

My answer is "YES" to the good question above. Thanks for your comment Steve.


-2

The issue with this passage is not a variant: http://bible.ovu.edu/terry/tc/lay30rev.htm Translators seem to be divided as to whether the clause is qualifying "have been written" or "has been slaughtered": http://biblehub.com/revelation/13-8.htm For my part, since the clause immediately follows "has been slain" it tips in favor of being connected to ...


2

Table of Contents Amharic (Ethiopic) Coptic Bohairic Sahidic Georgian Gothic Hebrew Latin Slavic Syriac (Aramaic) Amharic (Ethiopic) According to Wikipedia, Although Christianity became the state religion of Ethiopia in the 4th century, and the Bible was first translated into Ge'ez at about that time, only in the last two centuries have there ...


3

We overcome because of the blood of the Lamb and because of the word of our testimony and (as a result of overcoming) we do not love our lives even to death. That is, there appears to be a cause-effect here. In this respect, perseverance is invisible (inward / in-working) faith operating with visible (outward / out-working) faith. In other words, the Book ...


2

Note: This question is very broad - so made into a community Wiki Post. 1. Question Restatement: What are the most ancient translations of the Greek word: "μονογενής", in the New Testament? Is it "only" or "only-begotten"? Answer: μονογενής never just means - "Only". The construction always implies "a Child". μονο: Means "Sole", "Only", "Single", ...


1

Why would they call it "the next day, that followed the day of the preparation" if it was a "sabbath"? If it really was a saturday sabbath, they would have said so. Mat 27:62 Now the next day (G1887), that followed (G2076 G3326) the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate, "followed" (G2076 G3326) - is actually ...


2

I found the contextual explanation given by Jonathan T. Pennington in Heaven and Earth in the Gospel of Matthew to be the most compelling answer to this conundrum. You can access an online version at this link and skip to pages 147-150. The author's summary of this section is offered below. Matthew’s frequent use of the plural forms of does not stem from ...


0

Flesh and Spirit This phrase is part of a larger section discussing the concept of 'two births': Jesus replied, “I tell you the solemn truth, unless a person is born from above, he cannot see the kingdom of God.” Nicodemus said to him, “How can a man be born when he is old? He cannot enter his mother’s womb and be born a second time, can he?” Jesus ...


-1

Hebrews 1:8 is continued in verse 9 which references a second god and one god is the God of the other who rewards the good service of the other with a blessing: Heb 1:9 You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions." In these two ways it is made clear that ...


9

History The Hebrew and Greek terms for 'messenger' do have this natural overlap, and can cause contention in translation. The Latin Vulgate was the first translation which tried to separate the word into divine and human, by transliterating the Greek term αγγελος to create the Latin angelus for divine messengers, and 'translating' it properly for human ...


0

Philippians 2:10 Notes: ἐπουράνιος: from ἐπί + οὐρανός = "upon" +"the heavens" ἐπίγειος: from ἐπί + γῆ = "upon" + "the earth" καταχθόνιος: from κατά + χθών = "down in" + "the earth/ground", i.e. a pseudonym for "hades" -- the place of the dead. Conclusion καταχθονίων refers to those who reside in "Hades" -- the place of the dead. The dead "bending ...


1

In 1 Tim. 4:10, the Greek text states, εἰς τοῦτο γὰρ καὶ κοπιῶμεν καὶ ὀνειδιζόμεθα, ὅτι ἠλπίκαμεν ἐπὶ θεῷ ζῶντι ὅς ἐστιν σωτὴρ πάντων ἀνθρώπων μάλιστα πιστῶν TR, 1550 which may be translated as, because for this reason we both suffer and endure reproach, since we trust the living God, who is the savior of all men, especially faithful. On the ...


-1

Jesus made very clear just a few verses earlier (Matt 5: 17 to 19) that he wasn't about to over-turn the Law. Therefore his answer must be understood in this context. So while divorce is undesirable, as Jesus made quite clear (Matt 19: 8), it still remained a valid option when a marriage broke down. The "exception clause" is entirely misunderstood. That ...


1

Was the LXX used in Palestine in the First Century? Yes. The Septuagint was used in Palestine in the 1st century. "The Jews made use of it [i.e the LXX] long before the Christian Era, and in the time of Christ it was recognised as a legitimate text, and was employed in Palestine even by the rabbis." (New Advent Catholic Encyclopedia).


-2

I would translate the verse like this: ...and ordained the son of God vested with power; [this ordination] accords with the life force of holiness he obtained by the resurrection from the dead. What this means is: Jesus obtained legitimacy as the seed of David by Joseph's tribal lineage to the house of David (vs. 3) Jesus was given the royalty ...


4

The answer might be "both." Fornication or sexual immorality, according to Barnes' Notes on the Bible is associated with the cult of Balaam: And to commit fornication - Balaam taught this; and that was the tendency of the doctrines inculcated at Pergamos. On what pretence this was done is not said; but it is clear that the church had regarded ...


-1

There are four assertions made in Hebrews 1:3 that explain how God speaking through a son is different from speaking through the prophets: Heb 1:3 He is the reflection of God's radiance, a picture of his [God's] nature and the carrier of all by his [God's] powerful sayings. After making purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the ...


0

It came from two Greek words ἀπό (off) and αὐγή (day-light). Hence, the Greek word απαυγασμα literally means "a light shining forth from" (i.e. radiation). This radiation can either be active or passive depending on the context. ACTIVE To emit light (effulgence). PASSIVE To mirror light (reflection). The Greek word απαυγασμα carries the active sense ...


-2

I wrote to Biblica, the outfit that produces the NIV and this was their (amazingly lame) response: On Wed, May 11, 2016 at 6:57 AM, Hans Combrink (East Asia) wrote: Dear Bill, The NIV translation team is very diligent in researching every occurrence. The notes document you refer to is given to illustrate the process, not to be a record of ...


0

The Greek word ἁρπαγμός is a noun denoting "to grasp at something" (source). This act of grasping can either be active or passive depending on the context.The active sense talks about "a thing to be taken" (res rapienda) while the passive sense talks about "a thing taken" (res rapta). Active To steal something by force (robbery). To snatch at (spoil). ...


0

HARPAGMOS has also the meaning of "robbery." and is translated as such in some of the other versions. The NIV does not do the word justice in its modern translation, not did it do well in earlier versions. When reading the incarnation passages, (i.e. John 1:14 and such), something became vastly different at that point. Paul has the best possible ...


0

ISTM that Paul is saying to avoid any type of [actual] evil. I say this because in the context he urges the Thessalonians to examine everything first. In other words, prior to examination one doesn't know if something is actually evil because it could be: 1) something that appears good and is actually good. <-- hold fast 2) something that appears good ...


2

The Greek text involves a textual variant. According to Constantin Tischendorf,1 the following manuscripts have the reading «ἐστιν ἁγίου»: If I am not mistaken, the earliest witness appears to be the Codex Sinaiticus (א) dated to the 4th century A.D. as seen in the following image of the manuscript: However, he notes the following witnesses which have ...


-3

The OP was right to suspect something was amiss. In Matthew 1:18, the author writes εκ πνευματος αγιου, which the KJV translators render as "of the Holy Ghost". In Matthew 1:20, the author writes πνευματος εστιν αγιου, which the KJV translators also render as "of the Holy Ghost". This is not sensible. No author intending the same thing, would construct ...



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