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Granville Sharp's first rule (p. 3) does not apply to John 20:28 because of the presence of the definite article before the second substantive (noun). καὶ ἀπεκρίθη Ὁ Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου Now, in regards to the sixth rule, Granville Sharp wrote (pp. 14-16): In response to the Socinian claim, he wrote, Except ...


5

Yes, the imperative is an accurate translation.1 The text in question: ἐγερθεὶς ἆρόν σου τὴν κλίνην καὶ ὕπαγε εἰς τὸν οἶκόν σου. (NA28) “Rise, pick up your bed and go home.” (ESV) The first two words I will label: ἐγερθεὶς: participle (aorist passive) ἆρόν: main verb (2nd person, aorist active imperative) This usage of the participle is ...


4

This, from the New Bible Commentary, 2nd Edition (1954), on Mark 14:36: "Abba (36) is Aramaic for 'Father.' The addition of Pater (Father) is probably not a translation by Mark. Some think the two words together are a very early liturgical formula of address in prayer. But it is more likely that they reflect a natural prayer habit of Jesus Himself, which ...


2

The word θεός occurs 159 times in the dative singular in the Greek New Testament (NA28). In all cases with the anarthrous construct (no occurrence of the definite article), the reference is not to "a god" but is instead in reference to the creator of the heavens and earth. In other words, there appears no references to "a god" in the Greek New Testament, ...


2

The Greek word ἐπανόρθωσιν is a noun declined in the accusative case; the lemma is ἐπανόρθωσις. BDAG defines the Greek word ἐπανόρθωσις as follows:(1) ἐπανόρθωσις, εως, ἡ ‘correcting, restoration’ (cp. e.g. ISardGauthier 3, 1 ‘restoration’ of a city; 1 Esdr 8:52; 1 Macc 14:34) then in transf. sense improvement (Ps.-Pla., Tim. L., 104a; Heraclid. ...


1

This text talks about Adam and Jesus, each one being the head of their respective race. Those in the race of Adam are referred to in the text as "πάντες ἐν τῷ Ἀδὰμ", v.22 (these are the unbelievers), and those in the race of Jesus as "πάντες ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ". Verse 23 is a new sentence that adds additional detail with respect to the order of the resurrection ...


1

The article in Greek does not function like it does in English (where it makes a word definite.) As I have outlined here, the presence of the article in Greek typically stresses identity, while the absence typically stresses quality. (However, there are even exceptions to this rule, so we need to be careful with blanket statements.) So yes, it could refer ...


1

Both English translations (proposed by the OP) appear appropriate. For example, according to the syntax graph from Wu, A., & Tan, R. (2010) in addition to the syntax graph from Lukaszewski, A. L., Dubis, M., & Blakley, T. (2011), "all Israel" (the sons of Abraham through blood relation) are not "from Israel" (the sons of Abraham through promise). ...


1

For a detailed description of koine and its common use in papyri, inscription, and many authors who didn't "Atticize" (imitate classical Attic Greek from 500 years before) in their Greek writings, see the introduction to Bauer's Greek-English Lexicon of the NT and other Early Christian Lit. He points out how it has characteristics of multiple dialects, and ...



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