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34

Short answer: no. Long answer: While the Greek lacks the definite article on theos in the clause under discussion, that doesn't mean the English should be translated with an indefinite article. Greek and English do not enjoy a one-to-one relationship between their words. There are times in Greek when the article is present but not translated into English. ...


18

It does not appear to be a very good translation of this word. 1473 (εγώ) is the personal pronoun, "I", so it tells us that Jesus was talking about Himself. 1510.2.1 (ειμι) is the real core of the question. 1510 is the infinitive "to be, exist". The following numbers (".2.1") tell you more about the nuances of meaning - tense, voice, etc. Some ...


17

This answer is supplementary to Frank Luke's, and supports it. When someone makes a claim about an ancient language's grammar, it always helps me to believe it and internalize it when I can see parallel usages that illustrate the truth of the claim. Thus, I am glad that Frank Luke offered several examples. I have another which is perhaps even more to the ...


16

I agree wholeheartedly with Jessica Brown's answer, but there's another dimension to accuracy: the text a translation is based on. Before the Tyndale Bible, English translations were made from the Latin translation (the Vulgate) and not directly from the Greek. For obvious reasons, these translations are automatically less accurate to the original texts ...


15

The Greek word for robber in John 18:40 is λῃστής. This word is defined by Strong's Enhanced Lexicon this way: 3027 ἀρχιλῃστής, λῃστής [lestes /lace·tace/] n m. From leizomai (to plunder);15 occurrences; AV translates as “thief” 11 times, and “robber” four times. 1 a robber, plunderer, freebooter, brigand. The Greek word used as murder here is ...


15

Among popular translations, New American Standard Bible is one of the most literal translations from the original languages, attemping to preserve as much as possible of the original sentance structure and word order. From more literal to less literal popular translations include: NASB, ESV, KJV, NKJV, NRSV, NIV, NLT, CEV, The Message. (list order courtesy ...


14

In addition to the points already provided, may I offer a more obvious point based on simple logic? So, the question is, should the latter θεός in John 1:1 be translated into English as "God" or "a god"? In John 1:3, it is written that «πάντα δι᾽ αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο καὶ χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο οὐδὲ ἕν ὃ γέγονεν», that is, "All things were made by him, and not one ...


14

To answer your first question, we should not simply accept Sinaiticus as the source of the truth for the New Testament. It has great weight in debates from its age, but age is not the final arbiter in textual considerations. Codex Sinaiticus was made in the 4th century on parchment using capital letters (a manuscript in all capitals is called an "uncial"). ...


13

The footnote exists because textual variants exist (different manuscripts have different words). Although "son" and "god" seem different, μονογενὴς θεός (the only God) and ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός (the only son) are actually not far off. In fact, in some of the manuscripts, they are contracted such that only one letter distinguishes them. We cannot be certain which ...


13

The word πορνεία is a difficult one to translate because it covers a wide range of sexual immorality. It has to be interpreted in context. Of the examples that you provide, 1 Corinthians 7:2 yields the strongest argument that pre-marital sex is included in Paul's use of the word πορνεία. 1 Corinthians 5:1 gives us a good example of the importance of ...


13

The Hebrew phrase in Psalms 118:25 from which the Greek Hosanna (ὡσαννά) derives is actually two words: הוֹשִׁ֨יעָ֥ה נָּ֑א (hoshi'ah na): הוֹשִׁ֨יעָ֥ה (hôšîâ) is Hiphil imperative masculine singular fromישׁע` (ysh'), which means to help, save, rescue. נָּ֑א (na) is a particle which indicates urgency or sincerity, and takes different meanings based on ...


12

I noticed that none of the current answers explicitly address the question of whether meek is a good English translation. Given the modern connotations of the word meek, it is not a good translation (though it may have been at one time), because in the modern usage it has a sense of craven pandering—the word, at least in my mind, has a derogatory ...


12

I wrote a paper on James 2:14-26 a few years back. Here's a link. TRANSLATION 14: What (is) the benefit, my brothers and sisters, if someone claims to have faith but does not have works? That faith is not able to save them (is it)? 15: Suppose a brother or a sister is naked and lacking of daily bread, 16: and someone from you (pl.) says to them, “Go ...


11

Was "Τετέλεσται" stamped across documents? Maybe. But I wouldn't think about translating this as "Paid in Full". Support for this phrase I have yet to find any true support for this phrase being used on tax documents. The closes I could come was from The Greek-English lexicon by Moulton and Milligan, which says: “Receipts are often introduced by the ...


11

Translation From the Apostolic Bible: Your first question is in regards to the translation. It seems that all three would be pretty valid translations. The original Greek for "the beginnings" here is arche: Strings G746 1. beginning, origin 2. the person or thing that commences, the first person or thing in a series, the leader 3. that by ...


11

This argument is incorrect. Participles have a wide range of interpretive possibilities and sometimes choosing the correct one is difficult. Here is a resource that may help as I go along. The argument that since βαπτίζοντες follows μαθητεύσατε it must mean that it is a later action is a grammar myth along the lines of the abused aorist. So, it is true ...


10

That seems unlikely. The word is clearly a compound of προ, which is equivalent to the English prefix "pre-", and ορίζω which means: v. define, fix, designate, detail, determine, prescribe, set As far as I can tell, this particular definition still applies to the word in modern Greek.


10

The Greek is πραεῖς, which has also been translated gentle. According to this source, the word was used to describe a horse that had been broken-in among other similar usages.


10

Many translations do use "And" or rephrase to avoid needing to insert a word there at all. The Majority Text looks like this: εγω δε λεγω υμιν οτι πας ο οργιζομενος τω αδελφω αυτου εικη ενοχος εσται τη κρισει ος δ αν ειπη τω αδελφω αυτου ρακα ενοχος εσται τω συνεδριω ος δ αν ειπη μωρε ενοχος εσται εις την γεενναν του πυρος I've bolded the word de ...


10

This is an attempt to give a brief theological answer, an answer that examines the words in their contexts and in their broader theological context, rather than a lexical investigation. The fool in Psalm 14/53 and in Proverbs is someone who is in moral antithesis to God. This is not an insult or a slur; it is an accurate description of the state of his ...


10

In Hebrew the name Joshua is: יְהוֹשׁוּעַ Yehoshua or יְהוֹשֻׁעַ Yehoshua “the LORD is salvation.” In Greek it is the transliteration of the Hebrew: Ιησους (Iēsous, sounds like ee-ay-soos). Therefore in the Greek New Testament Jesus and Joshua are both Iēsous. Up until now the names are the same and even in the Latin Vulgate they remained the same. In ...


10

This is just to add to Mike's answer, not to replace it. Joshua does not transliterate into Greek exactly. There are letters in Hebrew that are simply not there in Greek. The Greek of Luke 3:29, Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 all have Ἰησοῦ/s for Joshua. Translators render it as Joshua instead of Jesus because that is the name readers will be familiar with. ...


10

We must remember that two people with the same education and knowledge of original Biblical languages, will, and commonly do, conclude opposite conclusions while maintaining proclaimed objectivity in their exegesis. This is exactly what Protestant and Catholic scholars do concerning this verse. The reality is that everyone makes their exegetical conclusion ...


9

Not an expert, but I did have this link sent to me once: Abba Isn't Daddy Each of the three occurrences of αββα in the NT is followed by the Greek translation ο πατερ, "the father." This translation makes clear its meaning to the writers; the form is a literal translation -- "father" plus a definite article -- and like abba can also be a ...


9

During the Intertestamental period, Judas the Maccabee (the Hammer) led a major revolt in Israel. This is the Hasmonean revolt (beginning in 167 BC). After Judah and the other Hasmoneans led the people to victory in a major battle, the people had a celebration. They cut off palm branches, waved them in the air, and shouted "Hosanna!" Judah was killed in ...


9

Implicit in the question is the assumption that we are trying to produce an English translation that best captures the nuance of the original Greek without importing any doctrine. In other words, we want a "literal" translation that's useful for interpretation. There are two translation issues here and we can easily separate them and look at them ...


9

Raca means "empty headed," very similar to how we use "fool" today. Jesus also uses moros in that verse, which is the root of moron. While we normally need to take care not to commit the root fallacy, this one does mean the same thing. The word used in Hebrew is nabal which has more to do with consistently making bad moral choices. Brown, Driver, Briggs ...


9

As has already been pointed out, the progression is Jesus ἀγαπᾷς ἀγαπάω Verb Second Present Active Indicative Singular Peter φιλῶ φιλέω Verb First Present Active Indicative Singular Jesus ἀγαπᾷς ἀγαπάω Verb Second Present Active Indicative Singular Peter φιλῶ φιλέω Verb First Present Active Indicative Singular ...


9

Method First I identified every use of παράδοσις (paradosis) in the New Testament (regardless of morphology). I found that it is used 13 times in 13 verses. Next I listed each verse in separate columns in the order in which they appear in a standard English Bible. I then determined whether each use was positive or negative. As this is subjective, I ...


9

This name for the early Christians is unique to this passage of Paul on trial. While Tertullus, the prosecutor in this case, intended the word to be derogatory, a sect was not a cult. A sect then was something like a denominational division but not exactly. It was not a cult as the different sects usually recognized the legitimacy of other sects. In the ...



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