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At first glance, «Καὶ ἐγένετο ἐν τῷ εἶναι αὐτὸν» appears to be a Semiticism (which requires a paraphrase or reconstruction into English rather than a literal translation). A. T. Robertson wrote,1 The Semitic influence is undoubted in the O. T. and seems clear in Luke, due probably to his reading the LXX or to his Aramaic sources. The infinitive ...


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The second of the two subjunctive verbs in Mark 14:12 is unproblematic: in classical and post-classical Greek the conjunction ἵνα is always followed by a verb in the subjunctive mode if the verb in the principal clause is in the present tense (as it is here). This is simply a rule of Greek grammar. The first of the two subjunctives is slightly more ...


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Background to Answer the Question When going from source to target language in translation, a source word has a number of target possibilities, either within the possible semantic range of meaning for the source word into the appropriate similar meaning target word or for a transliteration of the characters of the source into the target characters or for a ...


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Word order often confuses more than it clarifies in the minds of English speakers (myself included) trying to sort out Greek syntax. In typical Greek fashion, the inflection of the nominal elements takes priority. In this case, ἁγίου must be an attributive adjective modifying πνεύματός because ἁγίου is in the genitive case,1 so it modifies a noun in the ...


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The Greek word εσμεν appears twice in Acts 17:28 For in him we live, and move, and have our being εσμεν; as certain also of your own poets have said, For we areεσμεν also his offspring. -- Acts 17:28 (KJV) Of itself, εσμεν is not a particularly special word, simply the present, first person, plural of the verb "to be". Here's the Greek: Εν | αυτω | ...


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Analysis of the Greek Text According to Joseph Henry Thayer, on the word πᾶς,1 III. with negatives; οὐ πᾶς, not every one. πᾶς οὐ (where οὐ belongs to the verb), no one, none, see οὐ, 2 p. 460; πᾶς μή (so that μή must be joined to the verb), no one, none, in final sentences, Jn. 3:15 sq.; 6:39; 12:46; 1 Co. 1:29; w. an impv. Eph. 4:29 (1 Macc. ...


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I'm a scientist not a Greek language expert but I previously did a Bayesian probability analysis on the hypothesis that Mark 1:9 contains a scribal error vs. an interpolation/redaction using information from Bart Ehrman and Jesus mythicist/Nazareth mythicist Frank Zindler. I concluded that the probability of a scribal error vs. an interpolation was about ...


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It only took me an hour and a half but I was finally able to photograph Acts 17:28 from the oldest manuscript copy we have, dated approximately 350 AD, taken from the Codex Sinaiticus. See here: (pdf) Obviously not showing because it's not online. So see it here, on the codex with four columns (second row to the left). SCROLL DOWN to see the actual ...


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αὐτὸν is the subject of εἶναι. ἐν τῷ εἶναι αὐτὸν ἐν τόπῳ τινὶ is literaly "in him being in a certain place" = "while he was in certain place". The subject of an infinitive is always in the accusative case.


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A literal translation of 1 Cor 14:1 would be "pursue love", as there is nothing that corresponds to the English "way" in the Greek, which would be οδος. Although there does not appear to be any textual justification for translating τὴν ἀγάπην as "the way of love", there might be some contextual justification. The statement "pursue love", divorced from ...



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