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I will limit my comments to the question is the “inclusive” reading of οἱ δὲ grammatically impossible rather than merely improbable which is the majority view: Stephanie Black objects to Grayston's approach, observing that οἱ δὲ signals discontinuity and would be highly unlikely if there were continuity of subject with the previous sentence. (Stephanie ...


3

This seems to be one where the translations, lexicons, and commentaries are in broad agreement: it's meant temporally. The syntax of the verse εἰς τὸ εἶναι ἡμᾶς εἰς ἔπαινον δόξης αὐτοῦ τοὺς προηλπικότας ἐν τῷ Χριστῷ. so that we who were the first to hope in Christ might be to the praise of his glory. (ESV) In this rendering, τοὺς προηλπικότας ...


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The very short answer is: "no". For the Greek Septuagint see NETS; for the Aramaic Targumim see the Aramaic Bible series; for the Hebrew Masoretic Text, any reliable public translation will do. These textual traditions are sufficiently distinct that it would not make sense to have an amalgamated edition (which is what I take it is meant by "all combined ...


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RE: (Aramaic Bible in Plain English) "gates of Sheol will not withstand it". There isn’t much support for the rendering you found in the greek text. It may be a viable rendering of a syriac version. Not sure which syriac version is being translated. NRSV Matt. 16:18 And I tell you, you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates ...


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A subject (A) in the nominative case plus οὐ δύναται plus infinitive (B) and ἀδύνατον plus a noun (A) in the accusative case plus an infinitive (B) are both correct classical Greek ways of saying "A cannot do B". There is no difference in meaning. See, for example, Smyth §2000 - §2002.


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Question: What does the phrase "I in the Father and the Father in me" mean in John 10:38 as well as John 14:10? It is unnecessary, and even imprudent, for us to invent an explanation--when Jesus explains it--in detail, even using metaphors. Additionally, John goes on to expound on this, in 1 John 2. Answer: Jesus' multiple explanations, as well as ...


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I realize this is an older thread. But, I would like to point out that Paul, who was an Hebrew of the Hebrews (Phil. 3:5) having been raised in Judaism and zealous of the law, included himself among those who were in "bondage to the elements of the world" Ga:4:3: Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world: And by ...



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