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Yes. The Hebrew שָׂטָן (śāṭān) is frequently transliterated into Greek as σαταν (satan) or σατανᾶς (satanas) — 36 times in the New Testament. The word διάβολος (diabolos) is also used (37 times). Diabolos is technically an adjective meaning “slanderous”, and it is occasionally used attributively, describing people (e.g. 1 Tim 3:11). However, like ...


8

The verse: πρὸς ὃ δύνασθε ἀναγινώσκοντες νοῆσαι τὴν σύνεσίν μου ἐν τῷ μυστηρίῳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ. When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ.(ESV) [With reference] to which, reading, you are able to know...(my overly literal rendition) Indeed, ὃ is the object of the preposition. That’s a relative pronoun, here declined ...


7

There are several Greek words occasionally translated "things", but in Romans 8:28, Greek is using the adjective πᾶς (all) substantivally, that is, as a noun. In English, adjectives require an explicit noun to accompany them. In Greek, the adjective itself can represent both the attributive and the substantive component of an idea. When a Greek adjective is ...


3

There are at least three words that can designate "thing(s)" All word links below are to Liddell and Scott, A Greek-English Lexicon found online at http://www.perseus.tufts.edu. πᾶς (pas) Regarding Romans 8:28 specifically, this answer did well in noting how the neuter plural πάντα (panta) can have that idea "all things" reflected in translation. The ...


3

OP: Why is "Out" Injected? Many modern doctrines/translations inject "Out" into this passage, "Work Out", which implies "figuring out", implying a process of reasoning, ".. Figure out your own salvation ...” The word “out” is “injected” because: κατεργάζομαι does not simply mean “work”. The word “work” in English is usually intransitive.1 I ...


3

The articular infinitive is fun, isn’t it? This may be the most common construction in the Koine Greek that is has no real English equivalent. I’m a little confused about the way the sentence was parsed by your friends in the first paragraph, but I’ll explain it as I understand it and perhaps that will be helpful. The verse: καὶ νῦν δόξασόν με σύ, ...


2

While the Hebrew word השׁטן (saw-tawn') occurs 23 times in the OT, rendered as Satan a total of 17 times in the NET (Job 1:6-12; 2:1-7; Zech 3:1-2), with the other occurrences being translated variously as accuser, adversary, enemy, or to oppose, the Greek words σατάν and σατανᾶς occur 36 times in the NT, rendered every time as Satan in the NET.


2

Regarding μισέω (miseó) Luke 14:26 uses the term μισέω in a context that reasonably shows its usage to be something other than "an adversarial emotion we recognize as 'hate.'" That is, it is used in a relative sense there, where Christ is comparing the fact that one ought to "detest" father, mother, wife, child, brother, sister, and their own self if any of ...


2

It is probably easier to address the questions in reverse order. Question 2) Why the significant difference between the NA27 and TR in Matthew, but not in Luke? Comfort and Metzger both explain that the reading τέκνων most likely originated as a scribal emendation intended to harmonize this text with the parallel in Luke 7:35. Metzger for example ...


1

Your analysis is correct, and the following grammar citation provides the grammatical explanation to answer your remaining questions. Please click to enlarge. Thus the "splitting" of the clause with attributives (inserted in the middle of the sentence) is normal in Greek. Such "splitting" would not be typical in English.


1

Paul was talking to a group of rather wayward Christians. He pointed out in the previous verse that he was glad they were grieved, not because they were grieved but because it was a godly grief. He then explains this type of grief leads to salvation. Sure some of the people in the church were saved but certainly not all of them. This is still speaking of ...



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