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As the author does not refer to himself as 'John' but as the presbyter, or 'elder' (2 John 1:1; 3 John 1:1), I will use that term to refer to him. The attribution to John only came later in the second century. I will look at the epistle as a whole and establish the context before returning to how and why the elder speaks of being born of God. The elder's ...


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The point is that one cannot be simultaneously justified and sinning: 1Jn_1:6 If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth: The author is calling Luther's paradigm of simul iustus et peccator a lie and those who embrace his teaching as "out of step" with "the truth": In describing the new birth ...


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Yes, they are the same place. I would also like to add that a possible reason why Mitzrayim might be in the Hebrew dual form is because Egypt/Mitzrayim consisted of two parts: Upper & Lower Egypt. Just a theory I have!


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The majority of Greek texts, as well as early Latin and Syriac translations, actually read "son of God" [υἱὸν τοῦ θεοῦ], not "son of man". The so-called "Critical Text" compiled by Nestle-Aland chose to insert a variant reading that occurs in 9 manuscripts. The Bible translation you are using probably relies on this particular text. The most authoritative ...


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I believe you are asking if Revelation 3:12 is alluding to Exodus 6:6,7. According to http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/allusion, an allusion contains a reference to another passage: Full Definition of allusion 1 : an implied or indirect reference especially in literature; also : the use of such references 2 : the act of making an indirect ...


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Is "Egypt" an accurate translation of "Mitzrayim"? Yes. Ashraf Ezzat is making a bizarre claim. Here's the relevant information from the Theological Dictionary of the Old Testament, volume 8, p. 520:


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It seems to me the word for head can be compared to a mind, so if the mind of the woman (her husband) is uncovered (without guide) she shames her mind. If the mind (that is Messiah) of the man is covered (with alternative guide) he shames his mind). I believe John 17 will support this (with emphasis on verses 21 and 22) and 1st Corinthians 2 with emphasis ...


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The Idea in Brief The plural form (maḥămaddîm) is not literary, but is to be understood in the literal sense. That is, Jewish sages over the centuries did not understand the plural form here in any literary (or abstract) sense, but in the most literal way. In this regard, the plural suffix was in reference to sweet words (plural) that emanate from the ...


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The plural noun in classical Hebrew can do other "non-number" jobs than simply the plural of "majesty". One common one is the "plural of abstraction", and that is the way maḥămaddîm is typically understood here. Waltke-O'Connor para. 7.4.2(a) further refine this as refering to qualities: Cf. Joüon-Muraoka, who explain it precisely the same way: a "plural ...


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The suffix 'im' is very common in this passage and throughout Song of Songs, as there are a lot of plurals present throughout. 'His mouth is most sweet' is also conjugated in the plural here, as are many other words throughout this section of Song of Solomon. In each case, the plural isn't about majesty but rather intensity - it helps the text to flow ...


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I think that you might be right in supposing that Paul is approximately quoting what appears in the Septuagint: Habakkuk 2:4 (LXX) ἐὰν ὑποστείληται, οὐκ εὐδοκεῖ ἡ ψυχή μου ἐν αὐτῷ· ὁ δὲ δίκαιος ἐκ πίστεώς μου ζήσεται. Leviticus 18:5 (LXX) καὶ φυλάξεσθε πάντα τὰ προστάγματά μου καὶ πάντα τὰ κρίματά μου, καὶ ποιήσετε αὐτά· ἃ ποιήσας ...


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"kad" followed by an active participle means "when" or "while", but not "after" or "where". So your (1) and (3) are correct, the others are not possible.



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